(Single Best Answer) Question 61: On examination, a woman with postdated pregnancy is found to have 80% effaced cervix. She requires the induction of labour. This is best done through ?
A) Oxytocin drip B) Intracervical dinoprostone gel C) ARM with oxytocin drip D) Carboprost tromethamin intramuscularly Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 62: A multiparous woman presenting with postpartum haemorrhage due to placenta increta is best managed by ?
A) Hysterotomy with the removal of the adherent placenta B) Internal iliac artery ligation C) Hysterectomy D) Packing the uterus followed by a course of methotrexate Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Pre-eclampsia B) Oxytocin induced labour C) Hydramnios D) Multiple pregnancy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 64: A 25-year-old primigravida at term is in early labour with vertex presentation in left occipitoanterior position. The head is floating. Her diagonal conjugate measures 11 cm. The appropriate management will be ?
A) Deliver vaginally at home B) Give her a trial of labour C) Deliver by emergency caesarean section D) Administer oxytocin drip to induce more powerful contractions Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 65: A 34-week multiparous gravida comes in labour. On examination, the cervix is fully dilated, the head is at +2 station and the foetal heart rate is 172/min. The appropriate management will be ?
A) Immediate LSCS (Lower Segment Caesarean Section) B) Apply ventouse and deliver C) Wait and watch D) Apply forceps and deliver Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 66: Before the delivery of the second twin having cephalic presentation, the mother develops profuse bleeding per vaginum. The appropriate management will be ?
A) Deliver the placenta of the first twin B) ARM C) External cephalic version and oxytocin drip D) Internal podalic version and breech extraction Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 67: A second gravida, whose first baby is alive, has been in the second stage of labour for more than one hour. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated. The pelvis is adequate and the station of the vertex is +2. The occiput is in right, occipitoposterior position and the foetal heart is 120/min. The mother is exhausted. She should be delivered by ?
A) Forceps application B) Vacuum extraction C) Wait and watch policy D) Caesarean section Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 68: A 35-year-old multiparous woman is admitted with prolonged labour. She is in shock, and her pulse rate is 150 per minute. The uterus is tonically contracted with Bandls ring, and the presenting part is not engaged. The appropriate treatment is ?
A) Augment labour with oxytocin B) Deliver the baby by vaginal route using a vacuum extractor C) Perform LSCS (Lower Segment Caesarean Section) D) Do internal podalic version and extraction Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 69: A vaginal examination conducted during the second stage of labour reveals occipito-posterior position of the vertex. This occipito-posterior position of the vertex was diagnosed on the basis of which of the following findings ?
A) Anterior fontanelle not reached B) Posterior fontanelle in the subpubic area C) Sagittal suture in transverse in the pelvic cavity D) Posterior fontanelle is anteriror to the maternal sarcum with the sagittal suture anteroposterior Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):