A) Multiple tubal blocks B) Hydrosalpinx C) Salpingitis isthmica nodosa D) Ectopic pregnancy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 172: A parous woman complains of itching in the vulva. On examination, there is local redness and swelling and white flakes around the introitus. The most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Gonorrhoea B) Trichomoniasis C) Candidiasis D) Pyogenic vulvovaginitis Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 173: A recently married woman presents with dysuria and increased urinary frequency of two-days duration. On physical examination, her body temperature is 38 C and her vital signs are normal. Her gynaecologic examination does not reveal any vaginal discharge, vaginitis or cervicitis. Her urine analysis reveals 14 WBC per high power field and many gram negative rods. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy ?
A) Ampicillin B) Ceftriaxone C) Fluconazole D) Metronidazole Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 174: The characteristic features of inguinal lymph nodes associated with a primary syphilitic lesion of the vulva are ?
A) Painful, tender nodes which become matted together to form an abscess B) Firm, shotty, painless nodes that do not suppurate C) Non-suppurative tender enlarged nodes D) Painful inflamed nodes which undergo necrosis and develop a chronic sinus Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Infertility B) Foul-smelling vaginal discharge C) Pelvic pain D) Amenorrhoea Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 176: A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with genital malignancy. On physical examination she is found to have the enlargement of superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The most likely organ involved is ?
A) Uterus B) Cervix C) Vulva D) Adnexa Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 177: A 35-year-old woman who has completed her family shows a positive Pap smear [Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III (CIN III) ]. What is to be done next ?
A) Simple hysterectomy B) Wertheims hysterectomy C) Conisation D) Cryotherapy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 178: A 40-year-old woman presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The most appropriate first surgical treatment will be ?
A) Hysteroscopy B) Myomectomy C) Dilatation and curettage D) Hysterectomy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 179: A 15-year-old unmarried girl presents with complaints of dysmenorrhoea for the last about one year. She achieved menarche at 12 years of age. On abdominal and rectal examination, she has no abnormality. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Prescribe antibiotics B) Prescribe clotrimazole vaginal ovules C) Reassure her and prescribe analgesics D) Perform dilatation and curettage Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Excessive curettage during dilatation and curettage B) Post partum haemorrhage C) Prolonged usage of oral contraceptives D) Use of intrauterine contraceptive device Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):