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| targeteducation Total Posts: 1 | Posted: Tue May 29, 2007 03:52 pm BIOCHEMISTRY Roll no. Q. Booklet No. : Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet : Name of the candidate:…………………………………………………………………………………...………(NOT in block letters)Full signature :……………………………………………………………………………………..…………......(as in application form)Address :……………………………………………………………………………………….………….……...……………………………………………………………………………………………………………...……. INSTRUCTIONS 1. Please check that your question paper has 300 properly printed questions. If the paper is defective in any manner, ask for complete new set within first 5 minutes. After that no change will be allowed. 2. Enter your Roll Number, Serial No. of OMR answer sheet, full signature and name in the spaces provided on the question paper, answer sheet and attendance list. 3. Use only blue or black ball point pen for writing / marking. 4. To answer : Draw a horizontal line on the number you want to answer (1, 2, 3 or 4) like this : [1] [2] [3] [4] 5. Change/ cancellation of answers is NOT permitted. Attempt to cancel/change answer by erasing will entail negative marks. 6. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. Each incorrect answer will be awarded one negative mark. Zero mark will be given for question not answered. Any answer having more than one entry, will be treated as wrong answer and awarded negative mark. 7. Do not mark or write anything on the question booklet. 8. Any candidate found removing page(s) and/or copying down questions or using unfair means will be disqualified. Pager, cellular phone, calculator are strictly prohibited in the examination hall. 9. Any discrepancy or ambiguity in any question may be reported to Sub-Dean (Exams) in writing within 24 hours. No notice will be taken of representations received after 24 hours. 10. No candidate will be allowed to leave the hall until : (a) Two hours have elapsed after the start of the Examination. (b) The answer sheet is countersigned by both the Invigilators. (c) The Invigilator in your hall has taken your signature in the attendance list. 1. Number of amino acids present in mammalian tissues: 1. 10. 2. 20. 3. 30. 4. 40. 2. a – helix represents which level of structure of proteins? 1. Primary. 2. Secondary. 3. Tertiary. 4. Quaternary. 3. Abnormal folding of protein structure leads to: 1. Amyloidosis. 2. Mad cow disease. 3. Alzheimer’s disease. 4. All of the above 4. Amino acid containing an imino group: 1. Proline. 2. Alanine. 3. Valine. 4. Leucine 5. “Chocolate cyanosis” is seen in: 1. Congenital heart disease 2. CO poisoning 3. Methemoglobinemia 4. Anaemia 6. Type IV collagen is found in: 1. Skin. 2. Basement membrane. 3. Cartilage. 4. Bone. 7. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: 1. Km, Vmax same 2. Km, Vmax same 3. Vmax, Km same 4. Vmax, Km same 8. First oxidation – reduction reaction in glycolysis is: 1. Glyceraldehyde–3–PO4®1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate 2. 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate®3–Phosphoglycerate 3. Glyceraldehyde–3-PO4®3-Phosphoglycerate 4. Phosphoenolpyruvate®Pyruvate 9. Which of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogensis? 1. Lactate®Pyruvate 2. Phosphoenolpyruvate®Pyruvate 3. OAA®Phosphoenolpyruvate 4. Glucose-6-PO4 ®Fructose-6-PO4 10. Hurler’s syndrome is due to deficiency of: 1. Iduronate sulfatase 2. Beta-glucoronidase 3. Ueparan sulfamidase 4. Alpha-L-Iduronidase 11. Form in which most dietary lipids are packaged and exported from the intestinal mucosal cells is as: 1. Free FA 2. Micelles 3. Triacylglycerol 4. Chylomicrons 12. A teenage girl concerned about her weight attempts to maintain a fat free diet for many weeks. She would be deficient in the ability to synthesize: 1. Phospholipids 2. Cholesterol 3. Sphingolipids 4. Prostaglandins 13. “Crumpled tissue paper” appearance is a feature of: 1. Gaucher’s disease 2. Fabry’s disease 3. Farber disease 4. Tay – sach’s disease 14. Globoid cell leukodystrophy is also known as: 1. Metachromatic leukodystrophy 2. Neimann – pick disease 3. Krabbe disease 4. Fabry’s disease 15. 2 molecules of farnesyl pyrophosphate combine to form: 1. Valine 2. Squalene 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate. 4. Glucose-6-phosphate. 16. Statin drugs inhibit: 1. Transferase 2. Squalene synthase 3. HMG – CoA reductase 4. None of the above 17. Functional deficiency of LDL – receptors causes: 1. Abetalipoproteinemia 2. Type I hyperlipoproteinemia 3. Type II hyperlipidemia 4. 2 & 3. 18. “Good” cholesterol carrier is: 1. HDL 2. LDL 3. VLDL 4. 1 & 3. 19. Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by absence of: 1. UV – specific endonuclease 2. UV – specific exonuclease 3. DNA polymerase 4. None of the above 20. Polymerase responsible for elongation of leading strands of Okazaki fragments is: 1. POL µ 2. POL b 3. POL g 4. POL d 21. All except one are true regarding Type 1 DNA topoisomerases: 1. They have both nuclease & ligase activities 2. They do not require ATP 3. They relax both negative and positive supercoils in eukaryotic cells 4. They are targeted by etoposide 22. 3D’s of Pellagra include all except: 1. Diarrhoea 2. Dementia 3. Dyspnea 4. Dermatitis 23. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. K 24. In which one of the following tissues is glucose transport into the cell enhanced by insulin? 1. Brain 2. Lens 3. RBC’s 4. Adipose tissue 25 Which one of the following is characteristic of low insulin levels? 1. Increase glycogen synthesis 2. Decrease gluconeogenesis 3. Decrease glycogenolysis 4. Increase formation of 3-hydroxy-butyrate 26. The vitamin, which is involved in transamination, is: 1. Thiamine 2. Riboflavin 3. Pyridoxal phosphate 4. Niacin 27. Strongest type of bond is: 1. Covalent 2. Hydrogen 3. Electrostatic 4. Vander waal 28. Patient’s of tyrosinemia are more prone to develop: 1. Hepatic carcinoma 2. Melanoma 3. Adeno carcinoma colon 4. Retinoblastoma 29. Protein folding is facilitated by: 1. Hydrogen bond 2. Amide bond 3. Phosphate bond 4. Disulphide bond 30. Gluconeogenesis can occur from all of the following except: 1. Lactic acid 2. Acetoacetate 3. Glycerol 4. Alanine 31. Uronic acid levels are elevated in which of the following condition? 1. Tyrosinosis 2. Mucopolysaccharidoses 3. Maple syrup urine disease 4. Neimann Pick’s disease 32. In vitamin C deficiency, posttranslational modification of which amino acid is defective: 1. Lysine 2. Alanine 3. Glycine 4. Arginine 33. Bond involved between two strands of DNA is: 1. Hydrogen bond 2. Covalent bond 3. Vander waal’s bond 4. Ionic bond 34. In Tay Sach’s disease, there is a deficiency of: 1. Glucokinase 2. Glucocerebrosidase 3. Hexaminidase 4. Sphingomyelinase 35. All are the components of glutathione tripeptide except: 1. Glutamate 2. Glycine 3. Cysteine 4. Alanine 36. Maximum content of linoleic if found in: 1. Sunflower oil 2. Corn oil 3. Safflower oil 4. Soyabean oil 37. All except one are essential fatty acids: 1. Oleic acid 2. Linoleic 3. Linolenic acid 4. Eicosapentaenoic acid 38. The most important EFA is: 1. Linoleic acid 2. Linolenic acid 3. Arachidonic acid 4. All of the above 39. Rich source of eicosapentaenoic acid is: 1. Meat 2. Fish oil 3. Eggs 4. Soyabean oil 40. Maximum content of cholesterol is in: 1. LDL 2. VLDL 3. HDL 4. Chylomicrons 41. Maximum content of triglycerides is seen in: 1. LDL 2. VLDL 3. HDL 4. Chylomicrons 42. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is: 1. HMG CoA synthetase 2. HMG CoA reductase 3. Phoshofructokinase 4. Squalene epoxidase 43. Rate limiting enzyme in ketone body synthesis is: 1. HMG CoA synthetase 2. HMG CoA reductase 3. 7 a hydroxylase 4. Phoshofructokinase 44. All except one is a source of Vit B12: 1. Meat 2. Fish 3. Liver 4. Soyabean 45. Which of the following properly of bile acids is responsible for it’s detergent action? 1. Hydrophilic 2. Zwitter ion 3. Amphipathic 4. None of the above 46. Enzyme employed in PCR is: 1. Thermolabile enzyme 2. Thermostable enzyme 3. Enzyme stabilizer 4. All of the above 47. The enzyme used for amplification of a selected DNA sequence is: 1. DNA polymerase 2. DNA polymerase 3. DNA ligase 4. Reverse transcriptase 48. In familial hypercholesterolemia, there is deficiency of: 1. LDL receptors 2. Lipoprotein lipase 3. Apolipoproteins 4. None of the above 49. The 1st irreversible step in glycolysis is catalysed by: 1. Glucokinase 2. Hexokinase 3. Phoshofructokinase 4. Enolase 50. In the process of translation, proof reading of mRNA is done by: 1. RNA 2. Aminoacyl RNA synthetase 3. Leucine Zipper 4. DNA 51. Negative super coiling is done by: 1. DNA gyrase 2. DNA topoisomerase 3. DNA polymerase I 4. DNA polymerase II 52. Process utilized for separation of DNA fragments is: 1. Gel centrifugation 2. Paper chromatography 3. High speed centrifugation 4. Thin layer chromatography 53. Which of the following condition is pyridoxine dependent? 1. Homocystinuria 2. Maple syrup urine disease 3. Oxaluria 4. Xanthinuria 54. Posttranslational modification of histone occurs by all except: 1. Methylation 2. Acetylation 3. Glycosylation 4. Phosphorylation 55. Enzyme absent in skeletal muscles is: 1. Hexokinase 2. CPK 3. G-6-phosphatase 4. Phoshofructokinase 56. Denaturing substance among the following is: 1. Guanidine 2. Guanosine 3. Ghitamate 4. Glycine 57. Substrate level phosphorylation is catalyzed by: 1. Thiokinase 2. Succinate dehydrogenase 3. Malic dehydrogenase 4. Hexokinase 58. Following reactions are examples of substrate level phosphorylation except: 1. Succinyl CoA ® succinic acid 2. Phosphoenol pyruvate ® pyruvate 3. 1,3 – DPG ® 3 - phosphoglycerate 4. Glucose ® glucose – 6- phosphate 59. True about hereditary fructose intolerance is all except: 1. Liver and kidneys are involved 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Deficiency of fructose-1-phosphate Aldolase 4. Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates in tissues 60. Proteins can denatured by: 1. Heat 2. Extremes of pH 3. Organic solvents 4. All of the above 61. Receptor mediated endocytosis involves: 1. Cytosine 2. Clatherin 3. Adenosine 4. Porin 62. Antibody with catalytic activity is: 1. Abzyme 2. Isoenzyme 3. Alloenzyme 4. Abnormal enzyme 63. Which of the following is a conservative mutator? 1. Glutamic acid - glutamine 2. Histidine – glycine 3. Alanine - leucine 4. Arginine – aspartic acid 64. All of the following are rate-limiting enzyme except: 1. Tyrosine hydroxylase 2. 7 alpha hydroxylase 3. Carbamoyl transferase 4. Hexokinase 65. Sequence in a long chain of protein is identified by: 1. Chromosome walking 2. RFLP 3. SSOP 4. SSLP 66. Steroid receptor super family is present in: 1. Vitamin D3 2. Insulin 3. Glucagon 4. Thyroid 67. Random arrangement of molecules results in: 1. Precipitation 2. Denaturation 3. Crystallization 4. Solubilization 68. Molecular size is assessed by: 1. Sedimentation 2. Spectroscopy 3. Lyophilization 4. Salting 69. Rate limiting step in Fatty acid biosynthesis is catalysed by: 1. HMG CoA reductase 2. Acetyl CoA carboxylase 3. HMG CoA synthetase 4. 7 alpha hydroxylase 70. Gene for MHC is located on: 1. 8q 2. 8p 3. 6q 4. 6p 71. Addition of saturated fatty acids in plasma membrane causes: 1. Membrane becomes rigid 2. Increase fluidity in membrane 3. Decrease fluidity in membrane 4. No change in fluidity 72. Property of proteins to absorb UV rays of light is due to: 1. Peptide bond 2. Amino group 3. Disulphide bond 4. Aromatic amino acid 73. All of the following absorb UV light except: 1. Tryptophan 2. Alanine 3. Phenylalanine 4. Histidine 74. X-ray crystallography detects which types of protein structure: 1. Secondary 2. Tertiary 3. Quaternary 4. All of the above 75. Primary structure of proteins is detected by: 1. X-ray crystallography 2. Electrophoresis 3. Chromatography 4. Edman’s degradation technique 76. Stability of the toxin in snake’s venom is due to: 1. Hydrogen bonds 2. Disulphide bonds 3. Ionic bonds 4. Vander wal’s bonds 77. Bilirubin is absent in urine because it is: 1. Conjugated with glucuronides 2. Distribution in body fat 3. Not filterable 4. Lipophilic 78. Which moiety of Hb molecule binds to 2,3 – DPG at pH 7.0? 1. Amino terminal 2. Carboxy terminal 3. Sulfhydryl terminal 4. Alcoholic terminal 79. OAA + Acetyl CoA ® Citrate + CoASH – This reaction is: 1. Reversible 2. Irreversible 3. Competitive 4. None of the above 80. The major components of surfactant are: 1. Sugar salt 2. Soap & water 3. Lipid & protein 4. Lipid & base 81. All are true about MELAS except: 1. Recurrent stroke like episodes 2. Lactic acidosis 3. Dementia 4. All of the above 82. True about Reye’s syndrome is: 1. Major site of injury is mitochondria 2. Lactic acidosis present 3. Precipitated by salicylates 4. All of the above 83. On complete hydrolysis of DNA, all of the following are obtained except: 1. Adenosine 2. Purine bases 3. Phosphoric acid 4. Deoxypentose sugar 84. Basic amino acids are all except: 1. Histidine 2. Alanine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine 85. Which of the following amino acids will migrate slowest to the anode end at the physiological pH? 1. Aspartic acid 2. Glycine 3. Lysine 4. Valine 86. Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase will lead to elevated levels of 1. VLDL 2. LDL 3. HDL 4. Chylomicrons 87. Increase risk of myocardial infarction is associated with which amino acid? 1. Methionine 2. Homocysteine 3. Ornithine 4. Valine 88. Beta – sheets and beta -bonds are a feature of which type of protein structure: 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary 4. Quaternary 89. A peptide bond: 1. Has partial double bond character 2. Is ionized at physiological pH 3. Is stable to heating in strong acids 4. MC form is Cis configuration 90. Which of the following statement is correct? 1. Alha – Helix can be composed of more than one polypeptide chain 2. Beta - Sheets exist only in antiparallel form 3. Beta – Bends often contain proline 4. Alpha – Helix is stabilized primarily by ionic interactions between the side chains of amino acids 91. All the following about Histidine in Hb are true except: 1. Proximal histidine binds directly to the iron of heme 2. Distal histidine binds to both heme & O2 3. Distal histidine stabilizes the binding of oxygen to the ferrous iron 4. 1 and 3. 92. The following are true about Hb except: 1. The deoxy form is called the “tense” form 2. The lense form has low affinity for O2 3. The relaxed form has low affinity for O2 4. The relaxed form has more freedom of movement of polypeptide chains 93. Ehlers – Danlos syndrome is caused by defects in collagen type: 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 94. All are prevent in mitochondrial matrix except: 1. TCA cycle enzymes 2. Fatty acid oxidation enzymes 3. mt. DNA 4. ATP synthesizing structures 95. Complex associated with ATP synthesis in Electro transport chain: 1. Complex I 2. Complex III 3. Complex IV 4. Complex V 96. Cytochrome oxidize activity requires: 1. Fe2+ 2. Cu2+ 3. Mg2+ 4. 1 and 2 97. All are true about mt DNA except: 1. Present in mitochondrial matrix 2. Mutation can lead to Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy 3. Mutations of mtDNA are rare as compared to nuclear DNA 4. mt DNA is materially inherited 98. True about epimers: 1. Glucose and galactose are c – 4 epimers 2. Glucose and mannose are c – 2 epimers 3. Galactose and mannose are not epimers 4. All of the above 99. Fructose uptake requires: 1. GLUT 2 2. GLUT 3 3. GLUT 4 4. GLUT 5 100. Lactose is: 1. Glucose + glucose 2. Glucose + fructose 3. Glucose + galactose 4. Galactose + fructose 101. GLUT isoform mediating glucose flux across endoplasmic reticular membrane: 1. GLUT 2 2. GLUT 3 3. GLUT 5 4. GLUT 7 102. True about congenital lactic acidosis are all except: 1. Mc cause is deficiency of pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. X-linked recessive 3. Sever form can cause neonatal death 4. Ketogenic diet beneficial 103. GA most abundant glycosaminoglycans are: 1. Keratan sulphate 2. Chondroitin sulphate 3. Hyaluronic acid 4. Dermatan sulphate 104. True about 1 – cell disease are all except: 1. Caused by deficiency of the ability to phosphorylate mannose 2. Acid hydrolases of lysosomes absent 3. Skeletal deformities and restricted joint movements occur 4. Good prognosis 105. The presence of the following compound in the urine of a patient suggests deficiency of: 1. Glucosidase 2. Glucoronidase 3. Mannosidase 4. Sulphatase 106. Emulsification of dietary lipids occurs in: 1. Stomach 2. Duodenum 3. Jejunum 4. Ileum 107. True about carnitine is: 1. Found mainly in meat products 2. Can be synthesized from lysine and methionine 3. Synthesized in liver and kidney 4. All of the above 108. Ketone bodies are: 1. Acetone 2. Acetoacetate 3. 3 – Hydroxybutyrate 4. All of the above 109. True about Neimann – Pick’s disease: 1. Sphingomyelinase deficiency 2. Type A less severe than typeB 3. Autosomal recessive 4. Both 1 and 3 110. Fabry’s disease is inherited as: 1. AD 2. AR 3. X-linked 4. None 111. Autoantibodies to a lipid in the membrane of platelets are seen in SLE. The membrane lipid most likely to be involved is: 1. Cardiolipin 2. Ceramide 3. PAF 4. Sphingomyelin 112. Commonest form of congenital adrenal hypertrophy is due to deficiency of: 1. 17-alpha-hydroxylase 2. 21-alpha-hydroxylase 3. 11-beta-hydroxylase 4. Desmolase 113. Highest cholesterol content is in: 1. Chylomicrons 2. HDL 3. LDL 4. VLDL 114. Function of VLDL is: 1. Deliver cholesterol to liver 2. Deliver cholesterol to peripheral tissues 3. Deliver denovo TAG to peripheral tissues 4. Deliver dietary TAG to peripheral tissues 115. All are true about LDL except: 1. Delivers cholesterol to cells 2. Contains only one apoprotein 3. It is a marker for cardiovascular disease 4. It contains Apo-B4 116. The most important source of reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis in the liver is: 1. Glycolysis 2. TCA cycle 3. Uronic acid pathway 4. HMP pathway 117. Insulin increases the activity of all of the enzymes except: 1. Glucokinase 2. Pyruvate carboxylase 3. Glycogen syntheses 4. Acetyl CoA carboxylase 118. Which of the following combinations of biologically active molecules of Vit A consists of? 1. Retinol, retinal, retinoic acid 2. Retinol, retinal, THE 3. Retinal, conjugate, retinoic acid 4. Retinal, PABA, retinaldehyde 119. Primary structure of a protein refer to: 1. Lineal structure and order of amino acids 2. Regular conformational forms of a protein 3. Complete 3-D structure of the polypeptide units of a given protein 4. Sub unit structure of a protein 120. The damage caused by excessive UV light is due to: 1. Inhibition of DNA synthesis 2. Formation of thiamine dimers 3. Ionization 4. DNA fragmentation 121. All are true about a-helix except: 1. One of the most important 20 structure 2. Has a net dipole moment 3. All hydrogen bonds are aligned in the same direction 4. Long stretches of left handed a-helices occur in proteins 122. NADPH is involved in: 1. Synthesis of steroids and fatty acids 2. Reduction of H2O2 3. Phagocytosis by WBC’s 4. All of the above 123. True about HMP shunt are all except: 1. Occurs in cytosol 2. For each glucose-6-PO4, 2 NADPH are produced 3. Xylulose-5-PO4 is formed 4. 2 ATP are utilized 124. All the following occur in the mitochondria: 1. Apoptosis 2. ATP production 3. TCA cycle 4. Fatty acid biosynthesis 125. Activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotin deficiency: 1. Transketolase 2. Dehydrogenase 3. Oxidase 4. Carboxylase 126. Acetyl CoA acts as substrate for all the enzymes except: 1. HMG CoA synthetase 2. Malic enzyme 3. Malonyl CoA synthetase 4. Fatty acid synthetase 127. At the physiological pH, DNA molecules are: 1. Positively charged 2. Negatively charged 3. Neutral. 4. Amphipathic 128. All are true about RNA synthesis except: 1. Ribonucleotides are used in RNA synthesis 2. Primer is not involved in RNA synthesis 3. U replaces T as a complementary base pair for A. 4. Proof reading occurs during transcription 129. Reducing equivalents from mitochondria to cytosol during gluconeogenesis are transported by: 1. Malate 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamate 4. Oxaloacetate 130. Hormone not having any intracellular receptor: 1. Vitamin D3 2. Cortisone 3. Adrenaline 4. Thyroline 131. Accumulation of GM2 gangliosides is a feature of: 1. Tay Sach’s disease 2. Sandhoff’s disease 3. Hurler’s syndrome 4. 1 and 2 132. An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following amino acid within the a-helical structure: 1. Alanine 2. Aspartic acid 3. Tyrosine 4. Glycine 133. Alpha helix is disrupted by: 1. Proline 2. Lysine 3. Tryptophan 4. All of the above 134. A mutation in the codon, which causes a change in the coded amino acid, is known as: 1. Mitogenesis 2. Somatic mutation 3. Missense mutation 4. Recombination 135. Valine, if replaced by which amino acid would not result in any change in protein function: 1. Proline 2. Leucine 3. Glycine 4. Aspartate 136. RBC membrane is maintained by: 1. Spectrin 2. Laminin 3. Collagen 4. Elastin 137. One of the following is not a part of extracellular matrix: 1. Laminin 2. Fibronectin 3. Integrins 4. Collagen 138. Viscosity of synovial fluid depends on: 1. N-acetyl galactosamine 2. N-acetyl glucosamine 3. Glucoronic acid 4. Hyaluronic acid 139. Which of the following membrane has the highest protein contact per gram tissue? 1. Inner mitochondrial membrane 2. Outer mitochondrial membrane 3. Plasma membrane 4. Myelin sheath 140. Which of the following does not cross the cell membrane? 1. Glucose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose 3. NO 4. CO 141. Which of these amino acids does not have anomeric carbon atom? 1. Valine 2. Alanine 3. Tyrosine 4. Glycine 142. Defect in folding of the protein results in: 1. Kuru 2. Migraine 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Myopia 143. Energy for fatty acid synthesis is derived from: 1. NAD 2. FAD 3. GTP 4. NADPH 144. If a person is fasting for 72 hours, which of the following would be seen: 1. Increase glycogenolysis 2. Decrease ketosis 3. Protein degradation 4. Gluconeogenesis 145. Glucose – 6-phosphatase deficiency leads to hyperuricemia and goat due to: 1. Increase formation of pentose 2. Decrease availability of glucose to tissues 3. Increase accumulation of sorbitol 4. Impaired degradation of free radicals 146. Northern blot is used for: 1. DNA analysis 2. RNA analysis 3. Protein analysis 4. Enzyme analysis 147. Cancer cells derive nutrition form: 1. Glutolysis 2. Oxidative phosphorylation 3. Mitochondria 4. TCA cycle 148. End product of TCA cycle involved in detoxification of NH3 in brain: 1. Oxaloacetate 2. a-ketoglutarate 3. Succinate 4. Citrate 149. Vitamin K is needed for which of the following: 1. Methylation 2. Carboxylation 3. Hydroxylation 4. Transketolation 150. Amino acids secreted in cystinuria are all except: 1. Ornithine 2. Histidine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine 151. All of the following are stop codons except: 1. UAA 2. UAG 3. UGA 4. AUG 152. Amino acid active at physiological pH is: 1. Histidine 2. Lysine 3. Arginine 4. Cycline 153. Thiamine is not involved in one of the following reactions: 1. Lactate is converted to pyruvate 2. Alpha – Ketoglutarate is converted to succinyl CoA 3. Glucose is converted to pentose 4. Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-keto amino acids 154. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex involves: 1. Vit B1 2. Niacin 3. Riboflavin 4. All of the above 155. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process of respiratory burst involves activation of: 1. Oxidase 2. Hydrolase 3. Preoxidase 4. Dehydrogenase 156. The ligand – receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because of: 1. It’s large size 2. Reside losses it’s clathrin coat 3. Acidic pH of vesicles 4. Basic pH of vesicles 157. Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence? 1. Methionine 2. Aspartic acid 3. Valine 4. Arginine 158. All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl CoA except: 1. Methionine 2. Isoleucine 3. Valine 4. Histidine 159. Amino acid that serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is: 1. Alanine 2. Methionine 3. Arginine 4. Glutamine 160. Euchromatin region of the DNA is relatively: 1. Uncondensed 2. Condensed 3. Over condensed 4. Partially condensed 161. Micro-satellite sequence is: 1. Small satellite 2. Extra chromosomal DNA 3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA 4. Looped DNA 162. Mitochondrial DNA is: 1. Closed circular 2. Nicked circular 3. Linear 4. Open circular 163. Following type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base: 1. mRNA 2. tRNA 3. rRNA 4. snRNA 164. The sigma (s) submit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase: 1. Binds the antibiotic rifampicin 2. Is inhibited by alpha-aminitin 3. Specifically recognizes the promoter site 4. Is part of core enzyme 165. During DNA replication, the enzyme that polymerizes the Okazaki fragments is: 1. DNA polymerase I 2. DNA polymerase II 3. DNA polymerase III 4. RNA polymerase I 166. Vitamin B12 acts as co-enzyme for one of the enzymes: 1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 2. Homocysteine methyl transferase 3. Glucagon synthase 4. G-6-P dehydrogenase 167. Vitamin B12 acts as co-enzyme for one of the enzymes: 1. Methyl malonyl CoA ® succinyl CoA 2. Ribonucleotides ® Deoxyribonucleotides 3. Ethylene glycol ® acetaldehyde 4. All of the above 168. All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin except: 1. Adenylate cyclase 2. Glycogen synthase 3. Guanylyl cyclase 4. Hexokinase 169. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are: 1. Transferases 2. oxidases 3. Lyases 4. Peptidases 170. Magnesium is required as co-factor for: 1. ATPase 2. Dismutase 3. Phosphatase 4. Aldolase 171. In the process of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by: 1. Chemical methods 2. Physical methods 3. Chemiosmotic methods 4. Conformational changes 172. Thiamine levels are best monitored by: 1. Transketolase level in blood 2. Thiamine level in blood 3. G6PD activity 4. Reticulocytosis 173. Nitric oxide synthase: 1. Inhibited Ca2+ 2. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction 3. Accepts electrons from NADH 4. Requires NADPH, FAD, FMN and heme iron 174.Phenylalanine is the precursor of all of the following except: 1. Tyrosine 2. Epinephrine 3. Thyroxine 4. Melatonin 175. ApoB48 and ApoB100 expressed as two different apo-proteins because of difference in: 1. RNA editing 2. RNA splicing 3. Chromosomal loci 4. Apo-B gene 176. All of the following can be used to detect mutation except: 1. Single stranded conformational polymorphism 2. Ligase chain reaction 3. PCR 4. DNA sequencing 177. Elasticity of stratum corneum is due to: 1. Histidine 2. Keratin 3. Lysine 4. Cysteine 178. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by: 1. Ubiquitin 2. Tubulin 3. Laminin 4. Keratin 179. Conversion of an optically pure isomer into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro & levo isomer is called: 1. Polymerization 2. Stereoisomerization 3. Racemization 4. Fractionation 180.Alpha-Oxidation of odd chain fatty acids produces: 1. Succinyl CoA 2. Propionyl CoA 3. Acetyl CoA 4. Malonyl CoA 181. Protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes is: 1. Histone 2. Collagen 3. Hyaluronic acid binding protein 4. Fibrinogen 182. Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: 1. AUG codon 2. UAA codon 3. UAG codon 4. UGA codon 183. An enzyme that makes a dsDNA copy from a snRNA template molecule is known as: 1. DNA polymerase 2. RNA polymerase 3. Reverse transcriptase 4. Phosphokinase 184. Groups of proteins that assist in the folding of other proteins are: 1. Proteases 2. Proteosomes 3. Templates 4. Chaperones 185. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to: 1. Clathrin 2. Pepsin 3. Laminin 4. Ubiquitin 186. One of the following substances the release of Ca2+ from endoplasmic reticulum: 1. IP3 2. Parathormone 3. 1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol 4. DAG 187. A calcium binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration is: 1. Cycline 2. Calmodulin 3. Collagen 4. Kinesin 188. A person on fat free, carbohydrate rich diet continues to glow obese. The lipoprotein elevated in the blood is: 1. Chylomicrons 2. VLDL 3. LDL 4. HDL 189. The element involved in protection from oxidative stress is: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Potassium 4. Selenium 190. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in: 1. DNA polymerase III 2. DNA polymerase I 3. DNA exonuclease 4. DNA ligase 191. Fluoride inhibits the enzyme: 1. Glucokinase 2. Hexokinase 3. Enolase 4. Glucose-6-phosphatase 192. The predominant isoenzyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is: 1. LDH – 1 2. LDH - 2 3. LDH – 3 4. LDH – 5 193. Both Vitamin K and Vitamin C are involved in: 1. Synthesis of clotting factors 2. Posttranslational modifications 3. Antioxidant mechanisms 4. Microsomal hydroxylation reactions 194. Sources of nitrogen is urea cycle are: 1. Aspartate and ammonia 2. Glutamate and ammonia 3. Arginine and ammonia 4. Uric acid 195. A patient’s urine sample darkens on standing. The diagnosis is: 1. Phenylketoneuria 2. Alkaptonuria 3. Maple syrup urine disease 4. Tyrosinemia 196. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by: 1. Cyanide 2. CO2 3. CO 4. Carbonated beverages 197. RNA having abnormal purine bases is: 1. tRNA 2. mRNA 3. rRNA 4. snRNA 198. Fatty acid found exclusively in breast milk is: 1. Linolate 2. Linolenic acid 3. Palmitic acid 4. Decosahexaenoic acid 199. Most non-polar amino acid is: 1. Leucine 2. Glycine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine 200. Hormone using an enzyme receptor for it’s action is: 1. Insulin 2. Steroid 3. Estrogen 4. Thyroxine 201. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase, which protects the length of telomerase at the end of chromosomes, except 1. Germinal 2. Somatic 3. Hematopoietic 4. Tumor 202. Drug induced lupus is characterized by: 1. Anti histone antibodies 2. Double stranded DNA antibodies 3. Anti nuclear antibodies 4. Anti – SM antibodies 203. The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is: 1. 150 Kcals 2. 200 Kcals 3. 300 Kcals 4. 350 Kcals 204. All of the following may occur in Down’s syndrome except: 1. Hypothyroidism 2. Undescended testis 3. VSD 4. Brushfield’s spots 205. The sodium content of ReSoMal (Rehydration solution for malnourished children) is: 1. 90 mmol/L 2. 60 mmol/L 3. 45 mmol/L 4. 30 mmol/L 206. Body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle: 1. Interphase 2. Metaphase 3. GI phase 4. Telophase 207. Study the following carefully, inheritance pattern is: 1. Autosomal recessive 2. Autosomal dominant 3. X-Linked dominant 4. X-Linked recessive 208. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred as: 1. Genomic imprinting 2. Mosaicism 3. Anticipation 4. Non-penetrance 209. The recommended daily energy intake for an adult woman with heavy work is____Kcals: 1. 1800 2. 2100 3. 2300 4. 2900 210. Karyotype of a patients with androgen insensitivity syndrome is: 1. 46 XX 2. 46 XY 3. 47 XXY 4. 45 XO 211. Males who are sexually underdeveloped with rudimentary tests and prostate glands, sparse public hair and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of: 1. 45, XXY 2. 46, XY 3. 47, XXY 4. 46, X 212. Autosomal dominant disorder is: 1. Optic fibrosis 2. Phenylketoneuria 3. A-1 antitrypsin deficiency 4. Familial hypercholesterolemia 213. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristic of: 1. Klinefelter syndrome 2. Turner’s syndrome 3. Lri du chat syndrome 4. Noonan syndrome 214. The all junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecular between two cells are called: 1. Gap junctions 2. Tight junctions 3. Anchoring junctions 4. Focal junctions 215. Correct sequence of the cell cycle is: 1. G0-G1-S-G2-M 2. G0-M-G2-S-G1 3. G0-G1-G2-S-M 4. G0-G1-S-M-G2 216. A 19 years old female with short stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has karyotype: 1. 47, XX + 18 2. 46, XXY 3. 47, XXY 4. 45 X 217. An albino girl gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carries: 1. None affected, all carriers 2. All normal 3. 50X carriers 4. 50% affected, 50% carriers 218. Hereditary retinoblastoma develop the following chromosomal deletion: 1. 13q14 2. 13p14 3. 14p13 4. 14q13 219. Vitamin A supplement administered in “Prevention of nutritional in children programme”: 1. 25,000 IU/ml 2. 1 lakh IU/ml 3. 3 lakh IU/ml 4. 5 lakh IU/ml 220. All of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except: 1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 2. Crytorchidism 3. Infertility in females 4. AD transmission 221. In the intraepithelial region of the mucosa of intestine, the predominant cell population is that of: 1. B-cells 2. T-cells 3. Plasma cells 4. Basophils 222. Protein involved in intercellular connections is: 1. Connexins 2. Integrin 3. Adhesin 4. None of the above 223. Best test for assessment of iron status is: 1. Transferrin 2. Ferritin 3. Serum iron 4. Hemoglobin 224. A chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is: 1. Trisomy 18 2. Patau syndrome 3. Trisomy 21 4. Turner’s syndrome 225. Haversian system is found in: 1. Diaphysis of long bones 2. Cancellous bone 3. Epiphysis 4. Spongy bones of children 226. Autosomal dominant disease is: 1. Bloom’s syndrome 2. Ataxia telangiectasia 3. Retinoblastoma 4. Xeroderma pigmentosum 227. A patient on total parenteral nutrition for 20 days presents with weakness, vertigo and convulsions: 1. Hypomagnesaemia 2. Hyperammonemia 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Hyperkalemia 228. Gene coding for androgen receptor is located on: 1. Short arm of X chromosome 2. Long arm of X chromosome 3. Short of Y chromosome 4. Long arm of Y chromosome 229. Following constitute dietary fibres except: 1. Pectin 2. Cellulose 3. Hemi cellulose 4. Riboflavin 230. Trace element that cannot be completely supplemented by elite in pregnancy is: 1. Fe2+ 2. Ca2+ 3. Zn2+ 4. Mn2+ 231. Colostrum is rich in the following constituents as compared to breast milk: 1. Minerals 2. Proteins 3. Fats 4. Carbohydrates 232. Osmolarity of WHO – ORS is: 1. 240 osm/L 2. 280 osm/L 3. 300 osm/L 4. 330 osm/L 233. Megaloblastic anaemia in blind loop syndrome is due to: 1. Malabsorption 2. Bacterial overgrowth 3. Diarrhoea 4. Iron deficiency 234. Most common group of diseases following Mendelian inheritance are: 1. Autosomal dominant 2. Autosomal recessive 3. X-linked dominant 4. X-linked recessive 235. Gene for myotonic dystrophy is located on chromosome: 1. 19 2. 20 3. 21 4. 24 236. Langerhans cells are: 1. Phagocytic cells 2. Antigen presenting cells 3. Present in autoimmune diseases 4. Present in chronic infection 237. Gittre cells are also called: 1. Ependymal cells 2. Oligodendrocytes 3. Astrocytes 4. Modified CNS macrophages 238. Phagocytosis is the function of: 1. Astrocytes 2. Oligodendrocytes 3. Microglia 4. Schwann cells 239. MC trisomy among the following is: 1. 18 2. 21 3. 13 4. 5 240. Alopecia, hyperpigmentation, dermatitis, hypogonadism: 1. Copper 2. Iron 3. Line 4. Magnesium 241. Protective epithelium: 1. Has regenerative property 2. Does not have regenerative property 3. Does not shed easily 4. Bleeding is common 242. Vitamin B12 is not found in: 1. Soyabean 2. Meat 3. Milk 4. Fish 243. A child presented with anti mongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undescended festes. Diagnosis is: 1. Klinefelter’s syndrome 2. Noonan’s syndrome 3. Turner’s syndrome 4. Down’s syndrome 244. Vitamin K dependant factor is: 1. II 2. III 3. IV 4. VI 245. Following one does not form a filtration barrier in nephrons: 1. Podocytes 2. Mesangium 3. Endothelial cells 4. Basement membrane 246. Drug used for prevention of congenital neural tube defects: 1. Thiamine 2. Riboflavin 3. Folic acid 4. Pyridoxine 247. Coarctation of aorta is common in: 1. Down’s syndrome 2. Turner’s syndrome 3. Klinefelter’s syndrome 4. Noonan’s syndrome 248. Mucin secreting cells are all except: 1. Goblet cell 2. Paneth cell 3. Brunner’s gland 4. Crypts of lieberkuhn 249. Highest biological value of protein is seen in: 1. Eggs 2. Fish 3. Soyabean 4. Gram 250. Inheritance patterns in the pedigree chart is: 1. Autosomal dominant 2. Autosomal recessive 3. X-linked dominant 4. X-linked recessive 251. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at: 1. Lower border of L1 2. Lower border of L3 3. Lower border of S1 4. Lower border of L5 252. Testosterone is produced by: 1. Leydig cells 2. Sertoli cells 3. Seminiferous tubules 4. Epididymis 253. Mantle cells lymphomas are positive for all of the following except: 1. CD23 2. CD20 3. CD5 4. CD43 254. Aminophylline inhibits: 1. MAO 2. Alcohol dehydrogenase 3. Phosphodiesterase 4. Cytochrome P-450 255. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of: 1. Tonic-chronic seizures 2. Absence seizures 3. Myoclonic seizures 4. Simple partial seizures 256. Hyperkalemia leads to all except: 1. Prolonged PR interval 2. Prolonged QRS interval 3. Prolonged QT interval 4. Ventricular a systole 257. MC cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is: 1. TB 2. CA stomach 3. Duodenal lymphoma 4. Peptic ulcer disease 258. Total glasgow coma scale of a conscious person is: 1. 3 2. 8 3. 15 4. 10 259. All are true regarding tetralogy of Fallot except: 1. VSD 2. RV hypertrophy 3. ASD 4. Pulmonary stenosis 260. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of: 1. Kidney 2. Bronchus 3. Breast 4. Prostate 261. Brown tumors are seen in: 1. Hyperparathyroidism 2. Pigmented villonodular synovitis 3. Osteomalacia 4. Neurofibromatosis 262. MC cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is: 1. Retinal hole 2. Trauma 3. Hypertension 4. Diabetes 263. Which of the following local anesthetic belongs to the ester group? 1. Procaine 2. Bupivacaine 3. Lignocaine 4. Mepivacaine 264. Inducing agent of choice in children is: 1. Methoxyflurane 2. Seroflurane 3. Deslurane 4. Isoflurane 265. Maximum ionizing potential is of: 1. Electron 2. Proton 3. Helium ion 4. Photon 266. In scurvy, all of the following are seen except: 1. Pelian spur 2. Soap bubble appearance 3. Zone of demarcation at epiphysis 4. Frenkel’s line 267. Arlt’s line is seen in: 1. Vernal kerato conjunctivitis 2. Pterygium 3. Ocular pemphigoid 4. Trachoma 268. Polychromatic lusture is seen in: 1. Complicated cataract 2. Diabetes 3. Post radiation cataract 4. Congenital cataract 269. Tb spine affects all parts of the vertebra except: 1. Body 2. Lamina 3. Spinous process 4. Pedicle 270. Commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is: 1. Tongue 2. Floor of mouth 3. Alveobuccal complex 4. Lip 271. Commonest type of thyroid cancer in: 1. Medullary 2. Follicular 3. Papillary 4. Anaplastic 272. Persistent vomiting leads to: 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Hypochloremia 3. Acidic urine 4. Hyperventilation 273. Bostentan is an: 1. Serotonin uptake inhibitor 2. Endothelin receptor antagonist 3. Leukotriene modifier 4. Calcium sensitizer 274. Earliest Ig to be synthesized by the fetus is: 1. IgA 2. IgG 3. IgE 4. IgM 275. Most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method is: 1. Cementum apposition 2. Transparency of the root 3. Generalized polypikes 4. Hypoarrhythmia 276. Absence seizures are characterized by: 1. 3 H2 spike wave 2. 1-2 H2 spike wave 3. Generalized polyspikes 4. Hypoarrhythmia 277. One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% by: 1. 0.1 gm% 2. 1 gm% 3. 2 gm% 4. 3 gm% 278. Hunterian ligature operation is performed for: 1. Varicose veins 2. A-V fistula 3. Aneurysm 4. Acute ischaemia 279. Kinebock’s disease is due to avascular necrosis of: 1. Femoral neck. 2. Median cuneiform 3. Lunate 4. Scaphoid 280. Inducing agent of choice for day care anesthesia is: 1. Seroflurane 2. Ketamine 3. Propofol 4. Methohexitone 281. Most suitable radioisotope for treating hyperthyroidism is: 1. I123 2. I125 3. I 131 4. I132 282. Impulse control disorders are all except: 1. Pyromania 2. Trichotillomania 3. Kleptomania 4. Copgras syndrome 283. A child aged 15 years, has mental age of 9 years, hence IQ is: 1. 50 2. 60 3. 70 4. 80 284. IQ in profound mental retardation is: 1. 20-35 2. 35-50 3. 50-70 4. Less than 20 285. Best treatment for a pt of acute inferior wall MI is: 1. IV fluids 2. Digoxin 3. Diuretics 4. Vasodilators 286. Low-dose aspirin acts on: 1. Cyclo-oxygenase 2. Thromboxane A2 3. PGI2 4. Lipoxygenase 287. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by: 1. RSV 2. Rhinovirus 3. Adenovirus 4. Rotavirus 288. Right gastroepiploic artery is a breach of: 1. Left gastric 2. Splenic 3. Celiac trunk 4. Gastroduodenal 289. Auto immune hemolytic anemia is seen in: 1. ALL 2. AML 3. CLL 4. CML 290. Bugs crawling sensation is seen as an effect of: 1. Cocaine 2. Alcohol 3. Cannabis 4. Benzodiazepines 291. MC fungal infection in febrile nentropenia: 1. Aspergillus niger 2. Candida 3. Mucormycosis 4. Aspergillus fumigatus 292. Ulcer developing in burn tissue is: 1. Marjolin’s 2. Rodent 3. Melanoma 4. Curlings 293. MRKH syndrome is associated with: 1. Ovarian agencies 2. Absent fallopian tube 3. Vaginal atresia 4. Bicornuate uterus 294. Treatment of Kawasaki’s disease in children is: 1. Oral steroids 2. IV steroids 3. IVIg 4. Mycophendate mofetil 295. Pivot test is used for: 1. ACL 2. PCL 3. Medial meniscus 4. Lateral meniscus 296. Most radiosensitive tumor of the following is: 1. Supraglottic 2. Glottis 3. Nasopharynx 4. Subglottic 297. MC organism causing tinea capitis is: 1. Trichophyton tonsurans 2. Microsporum 3. Epidermophyton 4. Albicans 298. Anesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is: 1. Methoxyflurane 2. Isoflurane 3. Ehflurane 4. None of the above 299. Radio protective drug is: 1. Paclitaxel 2. Vincristine 3. Amifostine 4. Etoposide 300. Cranial nerve that emerges from the dossal surface of brain: 1. II 2. IV 3. VI 4. VII |
| nanu Total Posts: 228 | Posted: Tue May 29, 2007 08:38 pm which paper is this somebody explain |
| khuki Total Posts: 18 | Posted: Tue May 29, 2007 11:49 pm what paper is this from ??? |
| khuki Total Posts: 18 | Posted: Tue May 29, 2007 11:51 pm where r the answers to this paper ??? |
| vanco Total Posts: 5 | Posted: Tue Jun 05, 2007 05:53 am
what type of exam is this? |
| nanu Total Posts: 228 | Posted: Tue Jun 05, 2007 06:05 pm Its a mock test by a coaching institute. |
| shailu Total Posts: 2 | Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 01:17 am 4m where i can get d answers? |
| AAKASH Total Posts: 43 | Posted: Thu Jun 14, 2007 10:33 pm hello sir please please provide answers. JAB ITNI JADDOJAHAT QUESTIONS DALNE MEIN KI HAI TO ANSWERS BHI DIJIYE NA BHAI. PLEASE LOG-IN.   |
| gamma Total Posts: 24 | Posted: Sat Jun 16, 2007 04:31 pm no matter wot,but dis is really an EFFORT!keep it up. |