FORUM AIIMS Q n ANS NOV 2008 AIIMS 2008 NOVEMBER MD MS EE NOVEMBER ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES NEW DELHI MDMS ENTRNACE EXAMINATION JUNE NOTIFICATION RESULTS MOCKTESTS MOCKS ADMISSIONS SEATS COURSES PLAB, IELTS, USMLE, GRE, AIPGMEE, AIIMS, AFMC, BHU, CMC, JIPMER, PGI, SGPGI, ...

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Topic: AIIMS Q n ANS NOV 2008


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dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 07:58 am start recalling

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 07:59 am Glomus tumor found in 1 Finger 2 Liver 3 Adrenal 4 Pituitary

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:00 am Folic Acid gene present on Chr ..... 1 . chr 5 2 . chr 10 3 . chr 21 4 . chr X

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:00 am Lepromin test is 1.Diagnostic 2.Prognostic. 3 Treatment 4 Epidemiologic Evaluation

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:00 am Recurent GIST Diagnosed by 1.PET Scan 2. CECT 3.MRI 4.????

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:01 am GERD diagnosis n extent of disease 1. Manometry 2. 24 hrs PH 3. Esophagoscope 4. ????????

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:02 am MC Cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india 1. TB 2. RA 3. Hansens 4. ???????

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:03 am Fish is deficient in 1 Iron 2 Iodine 3 Vit A 4 Phosphorous

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:04 am More False +ve seen in 1 High Prevalence 2 Low Prevalence 3 High Specifi... 4 High Sensiti....

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:04 am Not an RNA virus 1 Simian 40 2 Ebola 3 Rabies 4 Vesicular Stomatitis virus

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:05 am Shortest Incubation period is seen in 1 Hep A 2 Hep B 3 Influenza 4 Rubella

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:06 am Wrapper of surgical syringe to be discarded in ?? 1.Red bag 2.Yellow 3 Blue 4 Black

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:07 am Vagus stimulation causes 1.Increase CO 2.Inc Heart rate 3.Inc stroke vol 4. inc R-R interval

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:08 am Virchows Triad 1 Hypercoagability 2 stasis of blood 3 injury to vessels 4 ?????

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:23 am fallopian tube dysmotility seen in........ 1 marfans 2 kartagener's 3 noonan's 4 turners

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:24 am MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........ femoral popliteal brachial radial

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:31 am FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LOCAL ANAESTHETIC 1.CAUDAL 2.epidural 3.brachial 4.Intercostal

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 04:23 pm glomus tumor - finger

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 04:28 pm glomus tumor - finger

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 04:28 pm glomus tumor - finger

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 04:32 pm folic acid gene - ? chromosome 10

Varunrag Total Posts: 72	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:46 pm Folic acid chro21 BRCA1 17 DNA VIRUS SV 40 PHOSPHORUS

Varunrag Total Posts: 72	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:53 pm Influenza PAN(4th choice) POPLITEAL A VENOUS THROMBOSIS(4TH CHOICE) KARTAGENER

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:55 pm wrapper - blue bag

Varunrag Total Posts: 72	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:55 pm 24 hour ph PET Epidemological low prevalance

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:57 pm vagal stimulation - increased r-r interval

Varunrag Total Posts: 72	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 08:58 pm 24 hour ph PET Epidemological low prevalance

juhidr Total Posts: 149	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 09:00 pm recurrent gist - pet

vinkys Total Posts: 9	Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 10:59 pm Pertussis toxin-ADP ribosylating; hunterian ligature- Aneurysm; Trendlenbergs test Curlings ulcer Nicoladanis sign- Branhams sign wick catheter- SAFE strategy highest refractive index-centroid of lens circadian rhythm- suprachiasmatic nuclei CHEOPS SCORE all except o2 saturation triangle of auscultation triangle of doom central dot sign

mady007 Total Posts: 8	Posted: Tue Nov 11, 2008 12:47 am The triangle of doom is defined be vas deferens medially, spermatic vessels laterally and external iliac vessels inferiorly. This triangle contains external iliac artery and vessels, the deep circumflex iliac vein, the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve and hidden by fascia the femoral nerve. Staple should not be applied in this triangle otherwise; chances of mortality are there if these great vessels are injured.

mady007 Total Posts: 8	Posted: Tue Nov 11, 2008 12:49 am triangle of auscultation above, by the Trapezius below, by the Latissimus dorsi laterally by the medial margin of the scapula

mady007 Total Posts: 8	Posted: Tue Nov 11, 2008 12:59 am Curling's ulcer is an acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to sloughing of the gastric mucosa

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Tue Nov 11, 2008 08:38 pm 1.not found in progressive multifocal leuko encephalopathy.. visual disturbance n speech defect harrison 17th page 2634 2.gower sign positive.detection of cpk harrison 17th 2700 3.refsum disease defective in oxidation of phytanic acidh 17th 2664 4.shoulder sign in rnd...... normal electro myography 5.bad prognostic sign of all harrison 17th 690 6.alkylating agent ifosphamide h 17th page 522 7. not an alkylating agent .5 fu h 17th 522 8.wiskott aldrich syndome not correct autosomal recessive h 17th 2060 9.congenital epidermolysis [bleep] defect in chromosome 7 h 17th 2469 10.drug given for reducing bone resorption n increased bone formation stroncium ranelate h 17th 2407 11 not found in thromotic thrombocytopeb\nic purpura.decreased complement level h 17th 723 12.not a kind of micro angiopathic hemolytic anemia antiphospholipid antibody syndrome h 17th 659 13. not a prion disease multiple sclerosis.h 17th 2647 14.prion proteins true is defect in folding of protein h 17th 2633 15.ovarian reserve marker fsh h 17th 2327 16.nbt test done for phagocytic cells h 17th 381 17.not found in fish oil.....iron park 500 18th referance female wrong thn is wt 55 kg park 501 19.NPU CORRECT IS NITROGEN RETAINED IN BODY DEVIDED by nitrogen intake multiplied by 100 park 503 20.milk pasteurization test done for efficacy phosphatase test park 523 21.not managed by incineration waste sharps park 648 22. plastic cover of syringe is discarded in black bag park 649 23.not an antilarval measure ddt park 627 24.not true abt ddt causes immediate death park 637 25. most common site for cholangio carcinoma hilum h 17th 585 26 gleasons scoring false is scoring starts from 1 to 10 h 17th 596 27 zinc deficiency not found pulmonary fibrosis h 17th 449 28. acrodermatitis false is triad of diarhea dementia alopecia h 17th 449 29.not done in obesity ileal transposition h 17th 473 30.age 55 with bone pain wt loss in previous 6 mt wth fleeting opacity carcinoma lung h 17th 556 31. vit k causes carboxylation of glutamate h 17th 730 32. carboxylation caused by biotin h 446 33.gardener with trauma to hand disease caused by sporothrix h 1265 34. malaria not used for diagnosis pf hrp1 h 1288 35. incidence rate calculated by prospective stdy park 71 36.not true abt rct ..sample size depends on stdy type park 77 37 . cyclodevelopmental cycle filaria park 92 38. shortest incubation period......influenza park 133 39.bcg vaccination true is danish 1331 park 161 40.efficacy of contraceptive pearl index park 406 41.national halth policy false is to reduce MMR to 30/100 by 2015 42. most common site of peripheral a aneurism popliteal a. h 1568 43.14 yr girl on exposure to cold develops pallor in hands scleroderma h 1572 44.one repeat q abt pulmonary alveolar proteinosis 45.GERD diagnosis done by 24 hr pH monitoring h 1851 46.acute mesenteric ischemia mc cause embolism h 1910 47.not found in acute hepatitis in chronic hep b ..anti hbc h 1956 48.most potent stimulator of t cell ...mature dendritic cells h 2024 49.MHC is found on chr 6 h 2044 50.cause of reiter syndrome ureaplasma h 2113 51.not found in reiter syndromesubcutaneous nodule h 2114 52.1987 revised criteria for rheumatoid arthritis does not include tarsometatarsal jt h 2089 53.anti tnf alpha not used in SLE h 2082 54.marker of myositis anti jo antibody h 2697 55.lepromin test useful in detection of prognosis park 271 56.cephalosporin dose reductiocefoperazone not required for katzung 737 57.does not occur in phase I METABOLISM conjugation kdt 24 58.not used in detrusor instability duloxetine kdt 110,95 59.can be used in severe liver failure - metronidazole kdt 799 60.toxicity of digoxin increased in a/e hyperkalemia kdt 498 61.not an immunosupressent cephalosporin kdt 837 62.stable pt wth penetrating injury to abdomen next to do investigation CECT csdt 12th ed 230 63.metastasis to supraclavicular l.n.in BREAST cancer stage IIIc csdt 311 64.curling ulcer mc site duodenum csdt 530 65.Falangana-beating on the sole of foot repeat 66.Hydrocution-submersion in cold water 67.To diff. btwn SLE and RA:Bone erosion 68. case of post cholecystectomy found on histopathology stage Ib conservative management csdt 584 69.presynaptic inhibition is due to hyperpolarisation of presynaptic membrane ganong 22ed 92 70.not present in cerebellar cortex ipolar cell ganong 219 71.circadian rhythm is due to suprachiasmatic nuclei g-235 72.aldosterone receptor absent in liver g-375 vagal stimulation causes increased R-R interval g-554 73.not found in renal medulla JG apparatus g-700 74.structure not piercing buccinator <Anatomy , nerve> A sensory branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; it passes downward emerging from beneath the ramus of the mandible to run forward on the buccinator muscle, piercing (but not supplying) it to supply the buccal mucous membrane and skin of the cheek near the angle of the mouth. reffered frm internet 75. arterial supply of scm muscle a/e posterior auricular a.Sternocleidomastoid muscle is present across the side of the neck and forms a prominent landmark when contracted. It originates in two heads, medial sternal head which is rounded and tendinous; and lateral clavicular head. The sternal head originates from the upper part of the anterior surface of the manubrium sterni and ascends posterolaterally. The clavicular head is variable in width and originates from the superior surface of the medial third of the clavicle and ascends almost vertically. The two heads of origin are separated by a triangular interval, which corresponds to a surface depression, the lesser supraclavicular fossa. As they ascend the clavicular head spirals behind the sternal head and blends with its deep surface below the middle of the neck, forming a thick, rounded belly. The muscle is inserted by a strong tendon to the lateral surface of the mastoid process from its apex to its superior border, and by a thin aponeurosis into the lateral half of the superior nuchal line. The clavicular fibres are mainly directed to the mastoid process; the sternal fibres extend to the occipital bone. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is supplied by the spinal part of the accessory nerve. It also receives proprioceptive innervations by cervical spinal nerves from the cervical plexus. The sternocleidomastoid muscle receives its blood supply from branches of the occipital and posterior auricular arteries, which supply the upper part of the muscle. The muscular branches coming from the superior thyroid artery and suprascapular artery supply the middle and lower part of sternocleidomastoid muscle. The sternocleidomastoid muscle acting alone, laterally flexes the neck and rotates the face to the opposite side. The two muscles acting together flex the head and neck forcibly. Spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, usually of unknown origin but sometimes congenital, is one cause of a flexion deformity of the neck known wryneck or torticollis; other muscles that rotate and flex the neck also may contribute to torticollis (Williams et al., 1995; Standring et al., 2005). CASE REPORT During the gross dissection of an elderly male cadaver a rare case of additional slip of origin was found on both sides, in the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid muscle (Fig. 1). Because of this additional slip of origin the clavicular head was extending up to the middle of the Case Report 622 clavicle on both sides, there by reducing the gap between the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. The two clavicular heads of origin of sternocleidomastoid muscle were separated by a wider triangular interval (compared to the interval between the sternal head and normal clavicular head), which corresponds to one more surface depression, the additional lesser supraclavicular fossa. The additional slip is also supplied by a branch from the spinal part of the accessory nerve. However, on both sides the origin of sternal head and the insertion of sternocleidomastoid muscle were found to be normal. DISCUSSION The sternocleidomastoid muscle varies much in the extent of its origin from the clavicle. In some cases the clavicular head may be as narrow as the sternal; in others it may be as much as 7.5 cm in breadth. When the clavicular origin is broad, it is occasionally subdivided into several slips, separated by narrow intervals. More rarely, the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles are fused with each other. Some authors regard this fusion between the Fig. 1. Variation in the origin of sternocleidomastoid muscle. Fig. 2. Variation in the origin of sternocleidomastoid muscle. RAMESH, R. T.; VISHNUMAYA, G.; PRAKASHCHANDRA, S. K. & SURESH, R. Variation in the origin of sternocleidomastoid muscle. A case report. Int. J. Morphol., 25(3):621-623, 2007. 623 sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles as normal (Bergman et al., 1988). This may be due to the developmental reason, since both the muscles are derived from the same source, the post-sixth branchial arch. The sternocleidomastoid muscle frequently separates into other parts, which are arranges in two parts: a superficial sternomastoid, sterno-occipital and cleido-occipital part; and a deep layer consisting of a deep sternomastoid and cleidomastoid part. The names indicate the attachment of various parts. Knowing the 5 parts of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is important for harvesting the muscle flap. A supernumerary cleido-occipital, more or less separate from the sternomastoid has a reported frequency of 33% (Mustafa, 2006, Bergman et al.). Occasionally, the lower portion of the muscle is traversed by a tendinous intersection, which may indicate the formation of the muscle from different myotomes (Bergman et al.). The supraclavicularis muscle arises from the manubrium behind the sternocleidomastoideus muscle and passes behind the sternocleidomastoideus muscle to the upper surface fot he clavicle. In our present findings, of the additional slip in the clavicular origin of sternocleidomastoid muscle may be due to abnormal splitting in the mesoderm of post-sixth branchial arch. However, the relevance of our findings whether it is associated with the condition of wry neck and other congenital deformities of the neck needs to be evaluated by further studies. In our study, even though additional slip of origin was found on both sides, in the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid muscle, we did not find any noticeable clinical symptoms. It is essential for the surgeons to be aware of possible variations during routine head and neck surgeries. Knowledge of sternocleidomastoid muscle consists of additional parts and the muscle fibers in each part are lying in the same direction from origin to insertion in the same fascial package may be important for harvesting the muscle flap reconstruction during parotid surgery is an effective method of covering the surgical defect and possibly preventing Frey's syndrome. Thus, it would be possible to choose more appropriate muscle parts. RAMESH, R. T.; VISHNUMAYA, G.; PRAKASHCHANDRA, S. K. & SURESH, R. Variaci�n en el origen del m�sculo esternocleidomastoideo. Reporte de caso. Int. J. Morphol., 25(3):621-623, 2007. RESUMEN: Durante una disecci�n de rutina, fue encontrado un raro caso de un fasc�culo adicional en el origen de la cabeza clavicular del m�sculo esternocleidomastoideo, en ambos lados del cuello, en un cad�ver de un anciano de sexo masculino. Sin embargo, en ambos lados, no se encontr� un fasc�culo adicional en el origen de la cabeza esternal ni en la inserci�n del m�sculo esternocleidomastoideo 76. a repeat q was thr abt bronchiolitis obliteration 77.carbohydrate ag all are true except less antigenic anant narayan p 81 78.lady frm shimla wth inguinal lap n stalctite growth cause is yersinia ref anantnarayan p 325 78. bacteriophage true is promotes toxigenicity to bacteria ref anannt 446 79.not a RNA virus SV 40 ref anant 562 80..EArliest to be diagnosed by usg:Anencephaly repeat 81.not done in shoulder dystocia management fundal pressure dutta 407 82. not protective in hiv in pregnancy allowing vaginal delivery dutta 301 83.common in both ab dependent nd ab non dependent complement pathway ....,c5 robbins 66 84.tumor metastasis depends on angiogenesi R 309 85. GLOMUS TUMOR FOUND on under finger nails robbins 547 86.hyper sensitive vasculitis found in postcapillary venule rob 541 87.diagnosis modality of choice for recurrence of GIST CT SCAN REF INTERNET Key words: gastrointestinal stromal tumor, imatinib mesylate, KIT. Correspondence to: George Galateros, MD, 16 Dim Vernardou St., 152 35 Vrilissia, Athens, Greece. Tel 0030-210-6829228; fax 0030-210-6205474; e-mail [email address in profile] [snip] .com Received September 3, 2007; accepted April 1, 2008. Stromal tumors of the stomach: a clinicopathological study of 15 cases and review of the literature George Galateros1, George Simatos2, Gregorios Lakiotis2, Martha Stathaki1, Spyros Volteas1, Georgia Kafiri3, and Varvara Theologi4 1Department of Surgery, Ippokration General Hospital, Athens; 21st Department of Surgery, 1st IKA Hospital, Penteli, Athens; 3Department of Histopathology, Ippokration General Hospital, Athens; 4Department of Histopathology, 1st IKA Hospital, Penteli, Athens, Greece ABSTRACT Aims and background. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors are the most common mesenchymal tumors of the digestive tract, although their incidence is low. These tumors make up a unique entity based on their molecular pathogenesis, immunohistochemical staining and responsiveness to targeted therapy. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors vary inmalignant potential ranging fromsmall incidentally detected tumorswith an excellent outcome to aggressive sarcomas. Their optimal diagnostic approach and treatment remain amatter of debate.We present our experience in this rapidlymoving field. Methods. We present our experience on 15 patients presented during a 5-year period (June 2000-September 2005)with gastrointestinal stromal tumors located in the stomach. Results. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and CT scan revealed the tumors in all cases. All patients underwent curative surgery. A definitive diagnosis was established after surgery. Conclusions. Although an inverse correlation between level of risk and survival of patients with gastrointestinal stromal tumors has been observed, 6 of our patients with an intermediate risk of recurrence had a favorable outcome. Introduction Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are soft tissue sarcomas of mesenchymal origin that arise in the gastrointestinal tract. GISTs are a unique entity separate from leiomyomas and leiomyosarcomas. Most GISTs arise in the stomach (60-70%) or small intestine (20-30%) and less frequently in the esophagus,mesentery, omentum, colon, or rectum (10%)1,2. They are rare before the age of 40 years, with a median age at presentation of 50-60 years and a slight male predominance3,4. The diagnosis of GIST relies on standard histological examination5 (tumor cellmorphology) and immunohistochemical analysis using CD1176. Over 85% of GIST express the KIT protein3 (stemcell factor receptor CD117). All tumors have the potential to becomemalignant, and the prediction of aggressiveness is best estimated by the simultaneous evaluation of several parameters7. As GIST is a recently defined entity, the optimal diagnostic approach, imaging and treatment have remained an area of active scientific debate over the last 5 years.We present our experience in this rapidly moving field. Patients and methods The study group consisted of 15 patients who underwent surgery for gastric GIST at the Departments of Surgery of Ippokration General Hospital and 1st IKA Hospital of Tumori, 94: 459-463, 2008 Athens, fromJune 2000 to September 2005. There were 9 males and 6 females, with a mean age of 59.5 years. Preoperative assessment was based mainly on endoscopy and computerized tomography (CT). All patients underwent surgery. The diagnosis of GIST was based on tumor cell morphology and a positive staining for KIT.We classified the tumors using the algorithm of the consensus for assessing the risk of malignancy of GIST reached at the NIH workstage based on tumor size and mitotic rate (per 50 high power field, HPF)6. The algorithm identifies four risk groups: a very low-risk group (<2 cmand <5mitoses/ 50 HPF), a low-risk group (2-5 cm and <5 mitoses/ 50HPF), an intermediate-risk group (<5 cmand 6- 10 mitoses/50 HPF or 5-10 cm and <5 mitoses/50 HPF) and a high-risk group (>5 cm and >5 mitoses/50 HPF or >10 cm regardless of mitotic activity). The study was approved by the Ethics Committees of both hospitals. Results Patients presented with vague symptoms, including abdominal pain, anorexia, weight loss and gastrointestinal hemorrhage (Table 1). All patients underwent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. In 7 cases, a submucosal mass was seen at endoscopy. Endoscopic ultrasound was not available at that time. In 8 patients with normal endoscopy, a CT scan revealed a typically extraluminal (exophytic) mass in all of them (Figure 1). CT staging showed in all 15 patients localized lesions amenable to radical surgery. There were no metastases to the liver or the peritoneal cavity. All patients underwent surgery. At the time of surgery, there was no tumor spread beyond the stomach, and a complete resection of the lesion was feasible in all cases. In 4 cases, the tumor was located in the proximal half and in 11 cases in the distal half of the stomach. Five patients underwent wedge resection, subtotal gastrectomy was performed in 8 patients, and total gastrectomy in 2 patients. There was no perioperativemortality. A definitive diagnosis of GIST was made after surgery by examination of the resected specimen. The diagnosis of GIST was based on tumor cell morphology and immunohistochemistry characteristics, mainly a positive staining for KIT (Table 2). Microscopically, 9 patients had spindle cell type GIST and 6 epithelioid type GIST (Figure 2). Surgical margins and lymph node status were negative in all cases. 460 G GALATEROS, G SIMATOS, G LAKIOTIS ET AL Table 1 - Signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal stromal tumors upon presentation Signs and symptoms No. cases Gastrointestinal bleeding 8 Anemia 3 Nausea-vomiting 3 Pain 2 Weight loss 2 Palpable mass 1 Table 2 - Immunohistochemistry of tumor samples Immunohistochemistry No. Kit (CD 117) 15 positive CD 34 8 positive Vimentin 15 positive SMA 4 positive S100 - Desmin - Figure 1 - CT scan demonstrated an exophytic mass with heterogeneous contrast enhancement arising from the stomach. Figure 2 - Spindle cell type GIST with positive staining for KIT. All patients were followed from the time of surgery. For high- and intermediate-risk patients, we recommended a CT scan every 3 months for 3 years, then every 6months for the next 2 years and yearly thereafter. For very low- and low-risk tumors, a CT scan every 6 months for 5 years seemed a reasonable strategy. In 3 patients with larger gastric tumors (>10 cm), multiple intrahepatic metastases were found within 2 years of the resection. They were treated with imatinib with an initial response to therapy. All 3 patients eventually died during the follow-up, having achieved a mean survival of 9.5 months (range, 7.5-12) after the initiation of imatinib treatment. The remaining 12 patients are all alive with no signs of recurrence after a median follow-up of 3.4 years (range, 6 months-5 years) after surgery. Treatment with imatinib was not recommended in these 12 patients (Table 3). In the analysis of clinical follow-up, we found a favorable outcome for the intermediate-risk group patients (4 males and 2 females). Discussion GISTs are rare tumors, representing approximately 0.1-3% of all gastrointestinal neoplasms and 5% of all sarcomas8. GISTs account for approximately 2% of all tumors of the stomach and 14% of all tumors of the small intestine9. The tumors were described in 1983 and are characterized by a specific histological and immunohistochemical pattern. GISTs have been shown to exhibit typical activating mutations of the KIT or PDGFRA proto-oncogenes, which are the likely causal molecular events of GIST. Gastric GISTs have a slightmale predominance (55%), with amedian age at presentation of 63 years. Only 2.7% of tumors occurs before the age of 21 years and 9.1% before the age of 40 years10.With prolonged follow-up, any GIST has the potential to behave in amalignant fashion. In an attempt to design a tumor-specific risk, a proposal was formulated including tumor size and mitotic activity per 50 HPF6. Generally, their malignant potential is often difficult to predict and is best assessed by the simultaneous evaluation of several parameters such as size, mitotic count, location, invasion of adjacent organs, mucosal invasion, nuclear pleomorphism, necro- Table 3 - Characteristics of tumors and follow-up according to risk group Risk group No. of Tumor Mitotic Follow up patients size (cm) count (yr) (/50 HPF) Mean Range Median Range Very low 1 1.5 - <5 2 Low 5 3.1 2.5-4.5 <5 3.2 0.5-5 Intermediate 6 5.9 5-7 <5 4.3 3-5 High 3 13 12-15 >5 2.7 2.6-3 HPF, high power field. sis and proliferation rate6,7. The only absolute criterion formalignancy is tumor spread beyond the organ of origin at the time of diagnosis. The significance of the primary site (location) is still disputed; GISTs from the small intestinemay have a worse prognosis than gastric GISTs11. In the small intestine, there is an overall 39%tumor- related mortality, twice that for gastric GIST12. Two-thirds of GISTs arise fromthe stomach. The commonest sites are: pars media, 40%; antrum, 25%; and pylorus, 20%. They develop in the submucosa (60%), subserosa (30%) or are intramural (10%). They may grow in an endophytic or exophytic way parallel to the gastric lumen13. Large tumors may have a �dumbbell� appearance, with masses protruding both into the lumen and out of the serosa of the stomach. Gastric GIST vary in size from 0.5 to 44 cm (median, 6.0)10 and commonly present with gastrointestinal bleeding, pain and fatigue. Approximately 12% are detected incidentally. GIST arising in the stomachmay be discovered during upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Endoscopic ultrasound may aid in the diagnosis. Contrast-enhanced CT scan is currently the imagingmodality of choice inmost cases14-16. Magnetic resonance imaging may facilitate localization and delineation of large exophytic GIST, mainly at the anorectum16. Surgery is the mainstay of therapy for patients with GIST whose primary lesion is deemed resectable. For localized tumors, wedge resection of the stomach provides adequate local therapy17,18. More extensive gastric lesions may require subtotal or even total gastrectomy. Adjacent organs adherent to the mass should be resected en bloc with the tumor17. GISTs generally protrude from the tissue of origin and displace surrounding structures rather than infiltrate18. The aim of surgery is the complete resection of the mass without disruption of the commonly present pseudocapsule. Avoiding rupture during surgery is of paramount importance since these tumors are very fragile, and the risk of spillage is very high17,19. Tumor rupture before or during resection is a predictor of a poor outcome. GIST rarely metastasize to lymph nodes and thus lymph node dissection is not routinely performed. Metastases usually present in two ways: liver and intraabdominal dissemination. GIST have a high tendency to seed, and the intra-abdominal lesions probably result from tumor cell seeding into the abdominal cavity, whereas livermetastases probably result fromhematogenous spread of GIST cells into the liver20. Extra-abdominalmetastases are very rare. Achieving negative microscopic surgical margins is usually feasible. Nevertheless, it seems that the pathologic status of the margins of resection is not associated with recurrence or survival, and the success of surgery depends mainly on whether the tumor sheds surface cells into the peritoneal cavity rather than on the surgical margins21,22. GASTROINTESTINAL STROMAL TUMORS 461 Studies have shown that in patients with gastric GIST, tumor size is an independent prognostic factor for survival21. Patients with tumors larger than 10 cm in diameter had a disease-specific 5-year survival rate of only 20% after resection. However, another study showed in a series of 1765 cases that in gastric GIST outcome was strongly dependent on tumor size and mitotic activity. Only 2-3% of tumors <10 cm in diameter and <5 mitoses/ 50 HPFmetastasize. Tumors >10 cm in diameter and with mitotic activity <5 mitoses/50 HPF have a relatively low metastatic rate (11%)10. Our 3 patients with tumors >10 cm in diameter had a mitotic count >5 per 50 HPF, and this possibly explains their poor outcome. Long-term follow-up reveals that most patients except for very low-risk patients eventually develop recurrence even after complete surgical resection of GIST. Most recurrences (local or metastatic) occur within 2 years of initial resection21,22. Unexpectedly, 6 of our patients at intermediate risk for recurrence had a favorable outcome and had no sign of recurrence 3-5 years after surgery. Recently, in a population-based study examining survival rates with GIST, an inverse correlation between the level of risk and survival was found9. In this particular series, patients with an intermediate risk of recurrence had a favorable outcome, and this was related to the fact that in most of the cases the tumors were detected incidentally at surgery. In the study, it was advocated that any GIST >6 cm in greatest dimension regardless of mitotic count and proliferative index should be regarded as potentially malignant and with a poor outcome. However, data from other recent studies support that the most important prognostic factor for gastric GIST is mitotic count, not tumor size23. These data combined may support the good clinical outcome of our patients at intermediate risk, since the average size of the tumor in this group was <6 cm(5.9 cm), and in addition all had amitotic count of <5/50 HPF.We would also like to emphasize the meticulous attention that we paid not to rupture the pseudocapsule of the tumor whenever feasible. This may also give evidence to the fact that our intermediate-risk group had a good outcome. It is most likely that most recurrences (local or metastatic) that occur within 2 years of initial radical resection are cases of the high-risk group. Patients with unresectable metastatic and advanced GISTs have a poor prognosis, with a median survival of about 12months (before the imatinib era)3,11,21, and unfortunately these tumors respond poorly to radiotherapy and chemotherapy. In such cases, immediate treatment with imatinib is recommended. The remarkable clinical response of GIST to treatment with imatinib is a triumph of molecular pharmacology22. The mechanism of action of imatinib in GIST involves inhibition of KIT or PDGFRa kinase activity. Several ongoing studies of imatinibmesylate in GIST are addressing the important issues of efficacy of neoadjuvant and adjuvant therapy, duration of therapy, and safety in the perioperative period. The use of imatinib mesylate for treating patients with GIST will be tailored by the final results of these clinical trials. For now,most experts recommend initiating imatinib therapy for patients with advanced GIST at a dose of 400-600 mg/day24,25. Impressive results are obtained with FDG-PET in the evaluation of treatment efficacy to themolecular targeted therapy with imatinib in GIST. A complete metabolic response is achieved within one week of the initiation of treatment in patients who respond and precedes CTscan response by several weeks to months24. PET also proved to be useful for the detection of secondary resistance to imatinibmesylate. Routine use of PET in oncology is still hampered by the high cost and the limited availability of the technique. At present, there is no indication for the routine use of PET in the management of patients with GIST. CT andmagnetic resonance imaging remain the imagingmodalities of choice in the initial diagnostic workup of GIST and for the evaluation of treatment efficacy26. References 1. Demetri GD:Targeting c-Kitmutations in solid tumors: scientific rationale and novel therapeutic options. Semin Oncol, 28(suppl 17): 19-26, 2001. 2. ShabahangM, Livingstone AS: Cutaneousmetastases from a gastrointestinal stromal tumor of the stomach: review of the literature. Dig Surg, 19: 64-65, 2002. 3. Clary BM, DeMatteo RP, Lewis JJ, Leung D, Brennan MF: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors and leiomyosarcoma of the abdomen and retroperitoneum: a clinical comparison. Ann Surg Oncol, 8: 290-299, 2001. 4. Miettinen M, Lasota J: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors - definition, clinical, histological, immunohistochemical and molecular genetic features and differential diagnosis. Virchows Arch, 438: 1-12, 2001. 5. Nishida T, Hirota S: Biological and clinical review of stromal tumors in the gastrointestinal tract. Histol Histopathol, 15: 1293-1301, 2000. 6. Fletcher CD, Berman JJ, Corless CL,Gorstein F, Lasota J, Langley BJ, Miettinen M, O�Leary TJ, Remotti H, Rubin BP, Smookler B, Sobin LH,Weiss SW: Diagnosis of gastrointestinal stromal tumors: a consensus approach. HumPathol, 33: 459-465, 2002. 7. Miettinen M, El-Rifai W, Sobin LH, Lasota J: Evaluation of malignancy and prognosis of gastrointestinal stromal tumors: a review. Hum Pathol, 33: 478-483, 2002. 8. Rossi CR, Mocellin S, Mencarelli R, Foletto M, Pilati P, Nitti D, Lise M: Gastrointestinal stomal tumors: from a surgical to a molecular approach. Int J Cancer, 107: 171-176, 2003. 9. Nilsson B, Bumming P,Meis-KindblomJM, Oden A, Dortok A, Gustavsson B, Sablinska K, Kindblom LG: GISTs: incidence, prevalence, clinical course and prognostication in the preimatinib mesylate era. Cancer, 103: 821-829, 2005. 10. MiettinenM, Sobin LH, LasotaNJ: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors of the stomach. A clinicopathologic, immunohistochemical and molecular genetic study of 1765 cases with long-term follow-up. Am J Surg Pathol, 29: 52-68, 2005. 11. Ng EH, Pollock RE, Munsell MF, Atkinson EN, Romsdhal MM: Prognostic factors influencing survival in gastrointestinal leiomyosarcomas: implications for surgical management and staging. Ann Surg, 215: 68-77, 1992. 462 G GALATEROS, G SIMATOS, G LAKIOTIS ET AL 12. MiettinenM,Makhlouf H, Sobin CH, Lasota J: GISTs of the jejunum and ileum: Study of 906 cases before imatinib with long-term follow-up. Am J Surg Pathol, 30: 477-489, 2006. 13. Hillemans M, Pasold S, Bottcherk, Hoffler H: Prognostic factors of gastrointestinal stromal tumors of the stomach. Verb Dtsch Ges Pathol, 82: 261-266, 1998. 14. Joensuu H, Fletcher C, Dimitrijevic S, Silberman S, Roberts P, Demetri G:Management ofmalignant GISTs. Lancet Oncol, 3: 655-664, 2002. 15. Ghanem N, Altehoefer C, Furtwangler A: CT scan in gastrointestinal stromal tumors. Eur Radiol, 13: 1669-1678, 2003. 16. Lau S, Tam KF, Kam CK, Lui CY, Siu CW, Lam HS, Mark KL: Imaging of GISTs. Clin Radiol 59: 487-498, 2004. 17. Connolly EM, Gaffney E, Reynolds J: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors. Br J Surg, 90: 1178-1186, 2003. 18. D�Amato G, Steinert D, Mc Auliffe JC: Upadate on the biology and therapy of GISTs. Cancer Control, 12: 44-56, 2005. 19. Blay JV, Bonvalot S, Casoli P, Choi H, Debiec-Richter M, Dei-Toss AP, Emile JF, Gronchi A,HogendoormPC, Joensuu H, La Cesne A, Mc Clure J, Maurel J, Nuppinen N, Ray-Goquard I, Reinchardt P, Scist R, Stroonbants S, van Glabbeke M, Van Oosteram A, Demetri GD: Consensus meeting for the management of GISTs. Ann Oncol, 16: 566-578, 2005. 20. Joensuu H: Current perspectives on the epidemiology of GISTs. Eur J Cancer, 4: 4-9, 2006. 21. De Matteo RP, Lewis JJ, Leung D, Mudan SS,Woodruff JM, Brennan MF: Two hundred GISTs: recurrence patterns and prognostic factors for survival. Ann Surg, 231: 51-58, 2000. 22. Samiian L,WeaverM, Velanovich V: Evaluation of GISTs for recurrence rates and patterns of long-term follow-up. Am Surg, 70: 87-91, 2004. 23. Park SS, Ryu JS, Oh SY, KimWB, Lee JH, ChaeYS, KimSJ, Kim CS, Mok YJ: Surgical outcomes and immunohistochemical features for GISTs of the stomach: with special reference to prognostic factors. Hepatogastroenterology, 54: 1454-1457, 2007. 24. Demetri GD, Von Mehren M, Blanke CD: Efficacy and safety of imatinib mesylate in advanced GISTs. N Engl J Med, 347: 472-480, 2002. 25. Reichardt P: Optimising therapy for GIST patients. Eur J Cancer, 4: 19-26, 2006. 26. Sroobants S: Imaging for soft tissue sarcomas: Conventional techniques or PET scanning? Eur J Cancer, 1: 200-211, 2003. GASTROINTESTINAL STROMAL TUMORS 463

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Tue Nov 11, 2008 10:18 pm *ALL QUESTIONS COMPILED TOGETHER* 1.not found in progressive multifocal leuko encephalopathy..visual disturbance n speech defect harrison 17th page 2634 2.gower sign positive.detection of cpk harrison 17th 2700 3.refsum disease def4.shoulder sign in rnd...... normal electro myography 5.bad prognostic sign of all harrison 17th 690 6.alkylating agent ifosphamide h 17th page 522 7. not an alkylating agent .5 fu h 17th 522 8.wiskott aldrich syndome not correct autosomal recessive h 17th 2060 ective in oxidation of phytanic acidh 17th 266 9.congenital epidermolysis [bleep] defect in chromosome 7 h 17th 2469 10.drug given for reducing bone resorption n increased bone formation stroncium ranelate h 17th 2407 4 11 not found in thromotic thrombocytopeb\nic purpura.decreased complement level h 17th 723 12.not a kind of micro angiopathic hemolytic anemia antiphospholipid antibody syndrome h 17th 659 13. not a prion disease multiple sclerosis.h 17th 2647 14.prion proteins true is defect in folding of protein h 17th 2633 15.ovarian reserve marker fsh h 17th 2327 16.nbt test done for phagocytic cells h 17th 381 17.not found in fish oil.....iron park 500 18th referance female wrong thn is wt 55 kg park 501 19.NPU CORRECT IS NITROGEN RETAINED IN BODY DEVIDED by nitrogen intake multiplied by 100 park 503 20.milk pasteurization test done for efficacy phosphatase test park 523 21.not managed by incineration waste sharps park 648 22. plastic cover of syringe is discarded in black bag park 649 23.not an antilarval measure ddt park 627 24.not true abt ddt causes immediate death park 637 25. most common site for cholangio carcinoma hilum h 17th 585 26 gleasons scoring false is scoring starts from 1 to 10 h 17th 596zinc deficiency not found pulmonary fibrosis h 17th 449 28. acrodermatitis false is triad of diarhea dementia alopecia h 17th 449 29.not done in obesity ileal transposition h 17th 473 30.age 55 with bone pain wt loss in previous 6 mt wth fleeting opacity carcinoma lung h 17th 556 31. vit k causes carboxylation of glutamate h 17th 730 32. carboxylation caused by biotin h 446 33.gardener with trauma to hand disease caused by sporothrix h 1265 34. malaria not used for diagnosis pf hrp1 h 1288 35. incidence rate calculated by prospective stdy park 71 36.not true abt rct ..sample size depends on stdy type park 77 37 . cyclodevelopmental cycle filaria p[ark 92 38. shortest incubation period......influenza park 133 39.bcg vaccination true is danish 1331 park 161 40.efficacy of contraceptive pearl index park 406 41.national halth policy false is to reduce MMR to 30/100 by 2015 2. most common site of peripheral a aneurism popliteal a. h 1568 43.14 yr girl on exposure to cold develops pallor in hands scleroderma h 1572 44.one repeat q abt pulmonary alveolar proteinosis 45.GERD diagnosis done by 24 hr pH monitoring h 1851 46.acute mesenteric ischemia mc cause embolism h 1910 47.not found in acute hepatitis in chronic hep b ..anti hbc h 1956 48.most potent stimulator of t cell ...mature dendritic cells h 2024 49.MHC is found on chr 6 h 2044 50.cause of reiter syndrome ureaplasma h 2113 51.not found in reiter syndrome oral ulcer h 2114 sorry wrongly typed ans of q 51 thts subcutaneous nodule ......... 52.1987 revised criteria for rheumatoid arthritis does not include tarsometatarsal jt h 2089 53.anti tnf alpha not used in SLE h 2082 54.marker of myositis anti jo antibody h 2697 55.lepromin test useful in detection of prognosis park 271 56.cephalosporin dose reductiocefoperazone not required for katzung 737 57.does not occur in phase I METABOLISM conjugation kdt 24 58.not used in detrusor instability duloxetine kdt 110,95 59.can be used in severe liver failure kdt 799 60.toxicity of digoxin increased in a/e hyperkalemia kdt 498 ans of q no 59 metronidazole 61.not an immunosupressent cephalosporin kdt 837 62.stable pt wth penetrating injury to abdomen next to do investigation CECT csdt 12th ed 230 63.metastasis to supraclavicular l.n.in BREAST cancer stage IIIc csdt 311 64.curling ulcer mc site duodenum csdt 530 5.Falangana-beating on the sole of foot repeat 66.Hydrocution-submersion in cold water 67.To diff. btwn SLE and RA:Bone erosion 68. case of post cholecystectomy found on histopathology stage Ib conservative management csdt 584 69.presynaptic inhibition is due to hyperpolarisation of presynaptic membrane ganong 22ed 92 70.not present in cerebellar cortex ipolar cell ganong 219 71.circadian rhythm is due to suprachiasmatic nuclei g-235 72.aldosterone receptor absent in liver g-375 vagal stimulation causes increased R-R interval g-554 73.not found in renal medulla JG apparatus g-700 74.structure not piercing buccinator <Anatomy , nerve> A sensory branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; it passes downward emerging from beneath the ramus of the mandible to run forward on the buccinator muscle, piercing (but not supplying) it to supply the buccal mucous membrane and skin of the cheek near the angle of the mouth. reffered frm internet 75. arterial supply of scm muscle a/e posterior auricular a 76. a repeat q was thr abt bronchiolitis obliteration 77.carbohydrate ag all are true except less antigenic anant narayan p 8178.lady frm shimla wth inguinal lap n stalctite growth cause is yersinia ref anantnarayan p 325 78. bacteriophage true is promotes toxigenicity to bacteria ref anannt 446 79.not a RNA virus SV 40 ref anant 562 80..EArliest to be diagnosed by usg:Anencephaly repeat 78. bacteriophage true is promotes toxigenicity to bacteria ref anannt 446 79.not a RNA virus SV 40 ref anant 562 80..EArliest to be diagnosed by usg:Anencephaly repeat 81.not done in shoulder dystocia management fundal pressure dutta 407 82. not protective in hiv in pregnancy allowing vaginal delivery dutta 301 83.common in both ab dependent nd ab non dependent complement pathway ....,c5 robbins 66 84.tumor metastasis depends on angiogenesi R 309 85. GLOMUS TUMOR FOUND on under finger nails robbins 547 86.hyper sensitive vasculitis found in postcapillary venule rob 541 87.diagnosis modality of choice for recurrence of GIST CT SCAN 88.NITROUS OXIDE CAN BE USED IN microlaryngeal surgery ref AY 59 89. CLUE CELLS ARE FOUND IN BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS SHAW 129 90.PCOD not found increased prolactin level shaw 353 91.45 yr female wth 8 mm thickness endometrium next line of management HISTOPATHOLOGICAL STUDY .....SHAW 394 92.WEBER FECHNERS LAW magnitude of sensation felt depends on intensity of stimulus 93. lymhatic drainage of abdomen nd pelvis to preaortic L.N. ref rameshbabu 269 94.left abducent nerve palsy true is diplopia in lt lateral gazeq no 94 ref parson 20th page 411. 95 adult with proptosis n abducent n oalsy wth homogenous mass wth high contrast enhancement ....cavernous hemangioma parson 462 96.horner syndrome not found apparant exopthalmus AY113 97. TREATMENT OPTION FOR DUCTAL ECTASIA MICRO DUCHETOMY REPEAT [snip].NICORANDYL SIGN IS KNOWN AS BRANHAM SIGN CSDT 823 99.HUNTERIAN LIGATURE USEDEffective methods to treat aortic aneurysms 100. DEFECTIVE FALLOPIAN TUBE MOTILITY IS FOUND IN KARTAGNER SYNDROME ROBBINS 727 101.BRCA1 GENE DEFECT IN CHR 17 ROBBINS 1133 102.TREATMENT OF CHOICE FOR MEDULLARY CA THYROID SURGERY ONLY REF STELL AND MARAN PAGE 472 103. which is not used in embalming? a. ethanol b. phenol c. glycerine d. formalin answer is (A)ethanol. ref.reddy 22nd editon page 138 n 139 also(for topiccavity embalming) 103.Vagal stimulation causes :increased rr interval 104.Cluster sampling true except:Same as randome simple sampling(repeat 105.CSF pressure maintained by :rate of csf absorption repeat 106.about ACARBOSE incorrect is reduces both pre and postprandial glucose level kdt 270 108.not a component of SAFE strategy vitA prophylaxis ref khurana 4th 68 109.inclusion cojuctivitis is caused by C.TRACHOMATIS anant 424 110.trendenburg test positive due to involvement of superior gluteal n. ref ramesh babu 146 111.spontneous CSF LEAK WRONG STATEMENT INCREASED INTRACRANIAL TEBSION 112Children's Hospital Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS) (Recommended for children 1-7 years old) - A score greater than 4 indicates pain 113.oxygen burst:NAdph oxidase repear 114.Alanine can be replaced by:Tryptophan repeat 115.Function of thiamine:Co enzyme for PDH and alfa keto dehydrogenase repeat 116.Cluster sampling true except:Same as randome simple sampling(repeat) 117.Glutathione a/e:Converts hemoglobin to meth hemoglobi(repeat) 118.Not true for rubella:maxm effect after 16 weeks of pregnancy repeat 119.dianosis of dengue serology h 17th 1228 120.not present in triangle of auscultation seratus anterior refTriangle of auscultation 121.kaplan meter detects survival ref https://books.google.com/books?id=mhyEeaUeOCkC&pg=PA203&dq=kaplan+meter&ei=85 122.mean circulating filling pressure defines CVP ND PERIPHERAL A. PRESSURE 123. SEVENTH MENTAL illness 124.TYPE ii SCIZOPHRENIA WRONG STATEMENT DISORGANISED BEHAVIOUR PAGE 66 AHUJA 125.commonest cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india 126.To diff. btwn SLE and RA:Bone erosion repeat 127.Max refractory power of eye:cornea 128.BIOMARKER FOR ECT BDNF REF Several findings have suggested that the neurotrophin BDNF could contribute to clinical efficacy of antidepressant treatments. The purpose of this study was to analyse if ECT operates a modulation of serum BDNF levels in a sample of drug resistant depressed patients. The results obtained show significantly higher serum levels of BDNF following ECT. More specifically, while no change occurred in the whole sample between T0 (baseline) and T1 (after ECT) (p=0.543) a significant increase has been identified at T2, one month after the end of ECT (p=0.002). However, the BDNF augmentation was evident even between T0 and T1 in a subgroup of patients who has low baseline BDNF levels. Although future researches are needed, the results herein presented show for the first time that ECT is associated with changes in serum BDNF and further support the possible involvement of BDNF in antidepressant therapies 129.CENTRAL DOT SIGN ON CT SCAN CAROLIS DISEASE 130 . a female female having delivery after 3 dys of chicken pox true statement is child can hv congenital infection h 1103 131cognitive model of depression? ans. is BECK. 132 nasolabial cyst false is bilat 133 .multiple myeloma minor criteria a/e:plasmacytoma(major criteria) repeat frm explanation frm guide 134.one repeat q was thr abt cephachlor trt n the guide has given its ans as type 3 hypersensitivityu bt accrd to data given i will prefer it as kawasaki disease plz help me in ths ans 135 axillary sheath is derived frm prevertebral fascia ref ramesh babu 115 136.not a second messenger guanylyl cyclase ref harper 27th 445 137 one q was thr wth a choice creatine phosphate n ths the ans harper 583 138.phosphorylase b inactivation is by glucose harper 162 139. presence of ab on membrane bound or secretory depends on isotype switching harper 603 140 protein structure can be detected by a/e high pressure liquid chromatography 141 marker of ribosome peptidyl transferase harper 374 142.multiple injury,tachypnoea, periumbilical rash-fat embolism 143.nitrogen narcosis due to N2 dissolves in neurons 143]Sulphonamides to girl:Acute intermittent porphyria ref h 2438 144/vasopressor used in obstetrics ephedrine 145.anticancer drug excreted by lungs m unable to get the referance 146 .high false positive is due to low prevalance 147. Drug therapy for the treatment of Langerhans cell histiocytosis Kenneth L McClain Baylor College of Medicine, Texas Children�s Cancer Center/Hematology Service, 6621 Fannin St. CC 1400, Houston, TX, USA. [email address in profile] txccc.org Langerhans cell histiocytosis results from the abnormal accumulation of a class of dendritic cells normally found in the skin, which proliferate in many organ systems along with lymphocytes, macrophages and eosinophils. Standard therapy for Langerhans cell histiocytosis includes vinblastine and prednisone with or without methotrexate and mercaptopurine, depending on the extent of disease. Effective therapies for patients unresponsive to the above include cytosine arabinoside and cladribine. Thalidomide has proven useful for patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis of the skin and/or bone. Emerging therapies include the use of monoclonal antibodies against the CD1a or CD52 epitopes found on Langerhans cells. Specific therapies directed against the cytokines that are apparently critical to the abnormal proliferation have not yet been defined. 148 not a non functional plasma enzyme lipoprotein lipase 149 false about breast milk max secration occurs at 12 mt it can be used as a referance pr 150 .not included in FIGO staging ca cervix CT scan 151. virchows triad does not include injury to veins ref robbins 130 152. not developed frm alar plate substantia nigra ref internet Cell Columns of the Spinal Cord and Brainstem 153. primi with obstructed labour wth exhaustion n fetal demise trt of choice caeserian section ref dutta 406 154. spleen projects into greater omentum 155.complication of total parenteral nutrition a/e congestive cardiac failure metabolic bone disease hyperphoasphatemia essential fatty acid deficiency 156. cause of neurolept malignant syndome except amantadine ref katzung 267 157 watson nd jones op is done in neglected club foot 158 painful movement in post comp syndrome passive dorsiflexon 159.hypopigmentation on forehead ans hydroquinone 160 microwick nd micropippette tech used in delivery of med to round window 161 local anae max absorption by epidural route 162 function of G alpha i subunit 163.maximum postprandial contraction in small intestien 164.falagna eating of ear by sole of foot repeat frm guide 165 .woman with abd pain n white lines on nail arsenic poisoning repeat 166.ct index plz send me the choices 167.measuring lung volume with severe bronchiectasis wth [bleep] helium dilution method 168.triangle of doom does not constitute The triangle of doom is defined be vas deferens medially, spermatic vessels laterally and external iliac vessels inferiorly. This triangle contains external iliac artery and vessels, the deep circumflex iliac vein, the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve and hidden by fascia the femoral nerve. Staple should not be applied in this triangle otherwise; chances of mortality are there if these great vessels are injured 169 management for a 10 yr boy who never studies n always prefer to play behavioural therapy ahuja 170. trt of rec histiocytosis high dos eMTX 171.23 yr male wth heterogenous retroperitoneal mass near lt renal hilum sorry i could not get the ans plz help me in this 172.injection of followin causes dilatation of spider nevi sorry for the inconvinience i could not get the ans 173 thanatology stdy of death repeat 174. NOT INCLUDED IN BIOSAFETY LEVEL 3 ANS T.B. and COXIELLA BURNETTI ref H 1343 175 dna without introns c DNA 176 Q ABT NOT A MAJOR CRITERIA IN HEART FAILURE ANS HEPATOMEGALLY REF H 16TH ED 177 TRUE ABT INSERTIONAL ACHILIS TENDONITIS WEARING OF SHOES 178Sling and swathe bandage is used for I THNK ANS WD BE ACROMIOCLAVICULAR DISLOCATION AS ITS USED IN REC SHOULDER DISLOCATION 179McrobertS manouvre most commonly injures which nerve? FEMORAL 180 Which is Not a permanent fold? TRANSVERSE FOLD OF RECTUM 180. FVC 90%,FEV1/FVC-92% decreased DLCO decrease in sat on exercise ANS INTERSTETIAL LUNG DISEASE 182.complication of TPN a/e hypermagnesemia 183 .25 years old primi,diagnosed for ovarion cyst gone for sx,histopath shows cystadenocarcinoma..next line of management 184.hybridoma false statement is b cells mixed with myeloma cells nd nd causes myeloma cell proliferation

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Thu Nov 13, 2008 03:07 am questions with all options....... 1)vaccines are stabilsed , as below , exceot; 1.bcg in neomycin. 2.opv in mgcl2. 3.dpt in aluminium hydroxide. 4.measles in kanamycin. 2)KAPLAN-MEIRE METHOD IS FOR ESTIMATING; 1. incidence, 2.prevalence. 3. survival . 4.surveillance 3) wrapper of surgical syringe to be discarded in ; 1.red bag. 2.yellow bag. 3.blue bag. 4, black bag 4)what is the source of energy for light productio9n in the fire fly. 1 atp. 2.gtp/ 3.phosphocreatine. 4.nadh. 5)which of the following is a temporary mucosal fold? 1. plica circularis 2. gastris rugae 3. transverse rectal fold 4. spiral valve 6)which one of the following artery is not involved in the anastomosis, when there is a block in the first part of the subclavian artery? 1. superior thoracic artery 2. subscapular artery 3. thyrocervical trunck 4.suprascapular artery 7)dengue -most sensitive inv? 1.tissue culture 2.CFT 3.elisa 4.microscopy 8)which one of the following from brainstem do not develop from the alar plate? 1. dentate nulei 2. substantia nigra 3. hypoglossal nuclei 4.olivery nuclei 9) terminal colic nodes? 1.preaortic 2.intermediate 3.paracolic 4.epicolic 10) introns are not seen in ? 1.z DNA 2.b DNA 3. mito DNA 4. chromosomal DNA 11)complication of total parenteral nutrition a/e 1.congestive cardiac failure 2.metabolic bone disease 3.hyperphoasphatemia 4.essential fatty acid deficiency 12) 28yr old female unmarried c/o dyspnoea,o/e normal;inv-FVC-90%;FEV1/FVC-96%;DLCO-59%; on exercise PO2decreased to 56%;diagnosis? 1.ILD 2.primary pulm htn 3.anxiety 4.pulm.hypoventilation 13) Structure not piercing buccinator muscle 1.Buccal br of facial N 2 buccal br mandibular N 3.parotid duct 4 mucous Glands on buccopharyngeal fascia 14) Vasodilation in spider naevi is seen wid 1.hepatotoxin 2 Estrogen 3 testosterone 4 DHEAS 15) Not associated with CHEOPS 1 .cry 2 .Touch 3 .Oxygen saturation 4 Torso 16) 45 yrs old lady with c/o DUB .8mm thick endometrium ... wat to be done 1.Hysterectomy 2.Progesterone 3.Histo patho of endometrium 4.follow up USG 17) primi 37 weeks with mild contractions for ten hrs with mild contractions with cervix 1 cm dilated, next to do- a. wait and watch b. sedation c. syntocin drip and augment d. caesarean section 1 not a second messenger- a. cyclic AMP b. guanyl cyclase c.DAG d.inositol triphosphate 19) spontaneous CSF leakage will be associated with A/E- a.pseudotumor cerebri b.raised ICT c.empty sella or partially empty sella d.low risk for encephalocoele 20) spleen projects into which part of peritoneal cavity? A. infracolic compartment B. left subhepatic space C. left paracolic gutter D.greater omentum 21) hybridoma- a. normal activated B cell and myeloma cell b. myeloma cells - selective mutatuion in salvage pathway, vigorous proliferation in HAT medium c. aminopterin a folic blocker, inhibits de novo nucleotide synthesis d. thymidine kinase and HGPRT catalyse the salvage pathway 22) which joint is not involved in rh arthritis according to ACR guidelines 1.tarsometatarsal 2.metatarsophalengial 3.ankle 4.elbow 23) Most potent stimulator of naive t-cell a. mature dendritic cell b. immature dendritic cell c. B cell d. T cell 24) risser's localiser cast is used in 1.idiopathic kyphosis 2.lumbar scoliosis 3.dorsolumbar scoliasis 4.grade 3 spondylothiasis 25) Which segment of git undergoes maximum post prandial contraction 1.ascending colon 2.descending colon 3.transverse colon 4.sigmoid 26) MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........ 1 femoral 2 popliteal 3 brachial 4 radial 27) All of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except....... 1 fundal press 2 mc roberts manuovre 3 woods ..... 4 suprapubic press 28)About DDT false is 1. Contact poison 2. Residual effects persist for 18 mnths 3. Cause Immediate death 4. Permethrin has synergistic action 29) All r larvicides xcept --- 1.DDT 2.Gambusia 3.Intermittent Irrigation 4.Paris green 30) Hunterian ligature done in 1 Aneurysm 2 Varicose 3 A-V Malformation 4 acute ischemia 31) MicroWick and Micro filter is used in administering drug in 1. Epistaxis 2. Antibiotics to round window 3. Frei`s Syndrome 4. drooling of saliva 32) National population policy: a. maternal mortality rate below 100/1000 b. IMR less than 30/1000 c. 100 % registration d.to stablize TFR by 2015 34) Lepromin test is 1.Diagnostic 2.Prognostic. 3 Treatment 4 Epidemiologic Evaluation 35) Folate transporter gene present on Chromosome 1 . chr 5 2 . chr 10 3 . chr 21 4 . chr X 36) MC Cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india 1. TB 2. RA 3. Hansens 4. arsenic 37) Glomus tumor found in 1 Finger 2 Liver 3 Adrenal 4 Pituitary 3 Fish is deficient in 1 Iron 2 Iodine 3 Vit A 4 Phosphorous 39) Shortest Incubation period is seen in 1 Hep A 2 Hep B 3 Influenza 4 Rubella 40) Not an RNA virus 1 Simian 40 2 Ebola 3 Rabies 4 Vesicular Stomatitis virus 41) All are seen in Virchows Triad except? 1 Hypercoagability 2 stasis of blood 3 vein injury 4 venous thrombosis 42)Vagus stimulation causes 1.Increase CO 2.Inc Heart rate 3.Inc stroke vol 4. inc R-R interval 43) Vassopressor of choice in obg 1 Phenylephrine 2 Ephedrine 3 Methoxamine 4 Mephentermine 44) fastest route of action for local anaesthetic a) caudal b) epidural c) brachial d) intercostals 45) max refractive index- a. cornea b. ant surface lens c. pos surface lens d. nucleus 46) 9 yr old, female child, difficulty in climbing stairs since one month, gowers sign positive , rash on metacarpophalangeal joint investigation to be done- a. esr b. rheu factor c.raised creatine kinase d.electro myography 47) patient in obstructed labour with dehydration, hemodynamically unstable, signs of fetal demise..next to be done- a.craniotomy b.decapitation. c.ceasarian d.wait and watch 48)Marker for ovarian reserve. 1. LH 2.FSH 3.LH/FSH ratio 4.estradiol 4 drugs used in detrusor instability are a/e 1.flavoxate 2.toleteradine 3.solafenacin 4.duloxitine 49) all of the foll done in morbid obesity except 1.sleeve gastrectomy 2.gastrectomy 3.biliopancreatic diversion 4.ileal transposition 50) which one of the following is not a minor criteria for multiple myeloma 1.lytic lession of bone 2.plasmacytosis 20% 3.plasmacytoma on biopsy 4.igG-3%,igA-1.5% 51) focal or diffused gall bladder thickening with hyper echoing shadow with comet tail artifact on abdominal usg is seen in 1.adenomyomatosis 2.xanthogranulomatous gallbladder 3.cholecystitis 4.carcinoma gall bladder 52) which of the following inhibit phosphorylase b 1.ATP 2.cAMP 3.calcium 4.glucose 53) which of the following not contribute to digoxin toxicity 1.hypomagnesemia 2.hypercalcemia 3.renal failure 4.hyperkaelemia 54)Which is not a major Framingham criterion for diagnosis of heart failure? a. Cardiomegaly b. Hepatomegaly c. S3 gallop d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 55)Study of death is known as: a. Thanatology b. Trichology c. .tetralogy d. trichology 56) What is known as Hydrocution? a. electrocution in water. b. immersion in boiling water c. postmortem drowning in water d. submersion in cold water 57) Embalming solution contains all except? a. Ethanol b. Phenol c. Glycerine d. Formalin 5 Which does not form a boundary of triangle of auscultation? a. trapezius b. scapula c. latissimus dorsi d.serratus anterior 59)Which is not a boundary of Triangle of doom? a. vas deferens b. spermatic vessels c. reflected peritoneal fold d. coopers ligament 60)Which structure is not part of the renal medulla? a. Collecting duct b. loop of henle c.juxtra glomerular apparatus d.vasa recta 61) Which cells are not seen in cerebellar region? a. golgi b. purkinje c. granular d. bipolar cells 62)BRCA 1 gene is located on? a. Chr 11 b. Chr 21 c. Chr 17 d. Chr 9 63) Which is the most important complement which is the first common point between classical and alternative pathway? a. C3 b. C5 c. C7 d. C1q 64) Which is not part of blood supply to SCM? a. Occipital b. Posterior Auricular c. Thyrocervical trunk d. Superior thyroid artery 65) Which is not an alkylating agent? a. Cyclophosphamide b. Busulphan c. 5-FU d. Melphalan 66) Fallopian tube motility is affected in? a. Marfan's b. Noonan's c. Kartagener d. Turner's 67) A 54 year old smoker comes with fever, hemoptysis, weight loss and oligoarthrits for last 6 months, Serial skiagrams show fleeting opacities. What is the most probablr diagnosis. a. TB b. ABPA c. wegners granulomatosis d. Ca lung 6 Central dot sign on CT is most characteristic of? a. Caroli's disease b. sclerosing cholangitis c. biliary hamartoma d. hemangioma 69) Which of the following is not seen in active replication phase of chronic hepatitis patient? a. HBV DNA b. HBV DNA Polymerase c. Anti HBc d. AST and ALT 70) most common cause of mesentric ischemia? A. arterial thrombosis B. embolism C. venous thrombosis D. non-occlusive mesentric ischemia 71) maximum gastric motility postprandial ? A.ascending colon B.transverse colon C.descending colon D.sigmoid colon colon 72) 2yr old boy fever cough brought to casuality at 3 am with 36breaths/min 39deg celcius wheeze and strdor on crying;able to drink;next step? 1. nebulised epinephrine 2.dexamethasone inj 3.bronchial washing for influenza /rsv 4.blood for cell count and culture 73)all of the following will prevent the HIV transmission from mother to fetus except 1.zidovudine to mother 2.vit A to mother 3.vaginal delivery 4.not brest feeding the baby 74) Recurent GIST Diagnosed by 1.PET Scan 2.CECT 3.MRI 4.mibg 75) drugs that is excreted by lung 1.cyclophosphamide 2.daunorubicin 3.5-FU 4.cisplatin. 76) which is not corrected after haemodialysis in crf pt. 1.pericarditis 2.peripheral neuropathy 3.convulsions 4.metabolic acidosis 77) thaldomide used in all except 1 enl 2. hiv related neuropathy 3. multiple myeloma 4.hiv related oral ulcers 7 anti tnf alpha used in all except 1.SLE 2.rh arthritis 3.psoriasis 4.BEHCET 79) biosafety level 3 is applicable to all agents except 1.M. tuberculosis 2.St. Louis encephalitis virus, 3.Coxiella burnetii 4.influenza 80)ca breast with supraclavicular lymph node is stage 1.II 2.IIIb 3.IIIc 4.IV 81) Nullipara who had undergone ovarian cystectomy was found as having serous cystadenocarcinoma next mx 1.measurement of ca125 level and follow up 2.salpingoophorectomy with staging 3.hysterectomy with BSO 4.chemotherapy. 82) In cholestosis of pregnancy investigation of choice 1.bilirubin 2.bile acid 3.alk po4ase 4.ALT AST 83) In mc Roberts maneuver hyperflexion of hip over abdomen causes injury to following nerve 1.lat. cut .N of thigh 2.obturator N 3.peroneal N 4.Lumbosacral plexus.

devangandu Total Posts: 6	Posted: Tue Nov 18, 2008 12:32 am Anatomy 1.In a subclavian artery block at the outer border of first rib all of the following vessels help in maintaining the circulation to upper limp except? a. thyrocervical trunk b. suprascapular a c. sub scapular a d. superior thoracic a. 2.Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from? a.prevertebral fascia b. clavipectoral fascia c. deep cervical fascia d. pectoral fascia. 3.BUCCINATOR MUSCLE IS PIERCED BY ALL EXCEPT? A. BUCCAL BR OF FACIAL N. B. MUCUS GLAND OF BUCCOPHARYNGEAL FASCIA. C. PAROTID DUCT D. BUCCAL BR OF MANDIBULAR N. 4.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BRAINSTEM NUCLEI IS NOT DERIVED FROM ALAR PLATE? A. HYPOGLOSSAL NUCLEI B. INFERIOR OLIVARY NUCLEUS C. DENTATE NUCLEUS D. SUBSTANTIS NIGRA 5. WHICH IS NOT A PERMANENT MUCOSAL FOLD? A. GASTRIC RUGAE B. SPIRAL VALVE C. TRANSVERSE RECTAL FOLD D. PLICA SEMILUNARIS 6.NOT A BOUNDARY OF TRIANGLE OF AUSCULTATION? A. SCAPULA B. TRAPEZIUS C. LATISSIMUS DORSI D. SERRATUS ANTERIOR 7.SPLEEN PROJECTS INTO THE FOLLOWING SPACE OF PERITONEAL CAVITY? A. GREATER SAC B. PARACOLIC GUTTER C. LEFT SUBHEPATIC SPACE D. INFRACOLIC COMPARTMENT 8. STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID IS NOT SUPPLIED BY? A. SUPERIOR THYROID A. B.THYROCERVICAL TRUNK C. OCCIPITAL A D. POST AURICULAR A 9.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE TERMINAL GROUP OF LYMPH NODE IN COELIAC AXIS? A. PREAORTIC B. LATERAL SACRAL C. PARA COLIC D. INTERMEDIATE GP. Physiology 10.NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS CAUSED DUE TO? A. INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY OF NEURONS FOR NITROGEN B. NITROGEN INHIBITS DISMUTASE ENZYME C. DECREASE IN OXYGEN FREE RADICALS D. INCREASED PRODUCTION OF NITROUS OXIDE 11. CSF PRESSURE DEPENDS PRIMARILY UPON? A.RATE OF FORMATION FROM CHOROID PLEXUS A. RATE OF ABSORPTION C. CEREBRAL BLOOD FLOW D. BLOOD PRESSURE 12.ALL ARE NON FUNCTIONAL PLASMA ENZYMES EXCEPT? A. LIPOPROTEIN LIPASE B. HORMONE SENSITIVE LIPASE C. ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE D. PROSTATE SPECIFIC PHOSPHATASE 13.MAXIMUM POST PRANDIAL MOTILITY IS SEEN IN? A. ASCENDING COLON B. DESCENDING COLON C. SIGMOID COLON D. TRANSEVERSE COLON 14. VAGAL STIMULATION OF HEART CAUSES? A. INCREASED HR B. . INCREASED RR INTERVAL C. . INCREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT D. . INCREASED FORCE OF CONTRACTION 15. TRUE ABOUT WEBER FESCHNER LAW? A. GRADATIONS OF STIMULUS STRENGTH ARE DISCRIMINATED APPROXIMATELY IN PROPORTION TO THE LOGARITHM OF THE STIMULUS STRENGTH B. C. D. 16.CELLS PRESENT IN CEREBRAL CORTEX ARE ALL EXCEPT? A. BIPOLAR CELLS B. PURKINJE CELLS D. GOLGI CELLS D. GRANULE CELLS 17. WHICH DOES NOT LIES IN MEDULLA? A. COLLECTING DUCT B. JG APPARATUS C. VASA RECTA D. LOOP OF HENLE 18.MINERALOCORTICOID RECEPTORS ARE PRESENT IN ALL EXCEPT? A. LIVER B. GLOMERULAR TUBULES C. COLON D. HIPPOCAMPUS 19. WHICH IS TRUE? A. CLEARANCE OF A SUBSTANCE IS GREATER THAN GFR IF TUBULAR SECRETION OCCOURS B. CLEARANCE OF A SUBS IS ALWAYS INCREASED IF THERE IS TUBULAR SECRETION C. DESCENDING LOH HAS HYPOTONIC URINE D. DESCENDING LOH IS PERMEABLE TO SOLUTES 20. MEAN CIRCULATING FILLING PRESSURE IS? A. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CENTRAL VENOUS PRESSURE AND CENTRAL ARTERIAL PRESSURE B. MEAN ATRIAL PRESSURE C. ARTERIALPRESSURE TAKEN JUST AT THE POINT WHEN HEART STOPS BEATING D. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN SYSTEMIC AND PULMONARY ARTERIAL PRESSURE 21.WHICH IS TRUE ABOUT PRESYNAPTIC INHIBITION? A. OCCOURS DUE TO HYPERPOLARISATION OF PRESYNAPTIC MEMBRANE B. OCCOURS DUE TO INHIBITION OF RELEASE OF NEUROTRANSMITTER FROM PRESYNAPTIC TERMINAL C. PRODUCES ACTION POTENTIAL D. 22.CIRCADIAN RHYTHM IS CONTROLLED BY? A. SUPRACHIASMATIC NUCLEUS B. MEDIAN EMINENCE C. PARAMEDIAN NU D. SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEI Biochemistry 23.DNA WITHOUT INTRONS IS? A. B DNA B. Z DNA C. C DNA D. MITOCHONDRIAL DNA 24.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT GLUTATHIONE EXCEPT? A. CONVERTS HEMOGLOBIN TO METHEMOGLOBIN B. DECREASES FREE RADICALS C. HELPS IN CONJUGATION REACTION D. CO FACTOR OF VARIOUS ENZYMES 25. RIBOSOME HAS FOLLOWIN ENZYMATIC ACTIVITY? A. PEPTIDYL TRANSFERASE B. AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASE C. PEPTIDASE D. 26.WHICH ENZYME IS RESPONSIBLE FOR CARBOXYLATION REACTION? A. BIOTIN B. C. D. THIAMINE PYROPHOSPHATE 28. GLOWING OF FIREFLY IS DUE TO? A. ATP B. NADH C. GTP D. PHOSPHO CREATININE 29.IN CARBOXYLATION OF CLOTTING FACTORS BY VIT K WHICH AMINO ACID IS CARBOXYLATED? A.ASPARTATE B. GLUTAMATE C. HISTAMINE D. HISTIDINE 30.SYNTHESIS OF A IMMUNOGLOBULIN IN MEMBRANE BOUND OR INDEPENDENT FORM IS DETERMINED BY? A. ONE TURN TWO TURN JOINING RULE B. ALLELIC EXCLUSION C. CLASS SWITCHING D. DIFFERENTIAL RNA PROCESSING 31.PHOSPHORLASE B IS INHIBITED BY? A. ATP B. AMP C. GLUCOSE D. CALCIUM 32. IN METABOLISM OF XENOBIOTICS ALL OF THE FOLLOWIN REACTIONS OCCOUR IN PHASE ONE EXCEPT? A. CONJUGATION B. REDUCTION C. HYDROLYSIS D.OXIDATION 33. WHICH IS NOT A SECOND MESSENGER? A. AMP B. GUANYL CYCLASE C. DAG D. IP3 34.STRUCTURE OF PROTEINS CAN BE DETERMINED BY ALL EXCEPT? A. MASS SPECTROMETRY B. NMR SPECTROMETRY C. HPLC 35. FUNCTIONS OF THIAMINE? A. CO ENZYME OF PYRUVATE DEHYDROGENASE AND ALPHA KETO DEHYDROGENASE B. CO ENZYME OF TRANS KETOLASE C. D. 36.REPLACIN ALANINE BY WHICH AMINO ACID WILL INCREASE THE ABSORBANCE OF PROTEINS AT 280nm? A. LEUCINE B.TRYPTOPHAN C. PROLINE D. ARGININE Pharmacology 37.THALIDOMIDE IS NOT USED IN? A. HIV RELATED NEUROPATHY B. ERYTHEMA NODOSUM LEPROSUM C. APHTHOUS ULCER D. BECHETS DS 38. DRUGS USED FOR DETRUSOR INSTABILITY ARE ALL EXCEPT? A. FLAVOXATE B. SOLIFENACIN C. DULOXETINE D.TIAPERETIDE 39.WHICH IS NOT AN ALKYLATING AGENT? A.CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE B. BUSULPHAN C.5FU D.MELPHALAN 40.IFOSFAMIDE BELONGS TO WHICH CLASS? A. ALKYLATING AGENT B. ANTI METABOLITE C. TAXANES D. ANTIBIOTICS 41.DOC FOR REFRACTORY HISTIOCYTOSIS? A. CLADARABINE B. FLUDARABINE C. CYTOSINE ARABINOSIDE D.HIGH DOSE METHOTREXATE 42.TNF ALPHA INHIBITORS ARE CONTRAINDICATED IN? A. SLE B. SERONEGATIVE SPONDYLOARTHRITIS C. PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS D. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS 43. TRUE ABOUT ALPHA SUBUNIT OF G PROTEIN? A. HAS GTPase ACTIVITY B. C. D. 44.HERCEPTIN? 45.TRUE ABOUT ACARBOSE ARE A/E? A. CONTROLS BOTH PRE AND POST PRANDIAL HYPERGLYCEMIA B. IT DECREASES FIBRINOGEN LEVEL C. ITS AN ALPHA GLUCOSIDASE INHIBITOR D.IT DELAYS PROGRESSION OF DIABETES 46.A FEMALE HAS HYPOPIGMENTED LEISON ON CENTRE OF FOREHEAD.DRUG RESPONSIBLE IS? A. HYDROQUINONE B. ETHER METABOLITE OF HYDROQUINONE C. PARA TETRA BUTYL CATECHOL D. PARA TETRA BUTYL PHENOL 47.DOSE OF WHICH CEPHALOSPORIN IS NOT REDUCED IN RENAL INSUFFICIENCY? A. CEFIXIME B. CEFOPERAZONE C. CEFIPIME 48. TRUE ABOUT ACE INHIBITORS? A. HALF LIFE OF ENLAPRIL IS MORE THAN LISINOPRIL B. INHIBIT CONVERSION OF ANGIOTENSINOGEN TO ANGIOTENSIN I C. FIRST DOSE HYPOTENSION IS NOT SEEN IF PREVIOUS TREATMENT WITH DIURETICS IS STOPPED 49.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOES NOT CONTRIBUTE TO DIGOXIN TOXICITY? A. HYPERKALEMIA B. HYPERCALCEMIA C. RENAL FAILURE D. HYPOMAGNESEMIA 50.WHICH DRUG USED INTREATMENT OF OSTEOPOROSIS CAUSES BOTH BONE FORMATION AND DECREASED BONE RESORPTION? A.BISPHOSPHONATE B STRONTIUN RANOXALATE C. TERAPEPTIDE D. CALCITONIN 51.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS CAN BE USED IN RENAL FAILURE? A.LORAZEPAM B.METRONIDAZOLE C.THEOPHYLLNE D. ACETAMINOPHEN 52.A GIRL ON SULPHONAMIDES DEVELOPED ABDOMINAL PAIN AND PRESENTED TO EMERGENCY WITH SEIZURE.WHAT IS THE PROBABLE CAUSE? A. ACUTE INTERMITTENT PORPHYRIA B. CONGENITAL ERYTHROPOIETIC PORPHYRIA C. INF MONONCLEOSIS D. KAWASAKIS DS Pathology 53.MHC IS LOCCATED ON WHICH CHROMOSOME? A. 10 B. 6 C.X D. 13 54.BRCA 1 IS LOCATED ON CHROMOSOME? A. 13 B. 11 C. 17 D. 22 55. GENE FOR FOLATE CARRIER PROTEIN IS LOCATED ON CHROMOSOME? A. 5 B. X C. 10 D. 9 56.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT THROMBOTIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA EXCEPT? A. MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA B. THROMBOCYTOPENIA C. NORMAL COMPLEMENT LEVEL D. THROMBOSIS 57.ESSENTIAL FOR TUMOUR METASTASIS IS? A. ANGIOGENESIS B.TUMOROGENESIS C. APOPTOSIS D. INHIBITION OF TYROSINE KINASE ACTIVITY 58. COMMON COMPLEMENT COMPONENT FOR BOTH PATHWAYS IS? A. C3 B. C5 C. C1q D. C8 59.ENZME RESPONSIBLE FOR RESPIRATORY BURST IS? A. OXIDASE B. DEHYDROGENASE C. PEROXIDASE D.CATALASE 60.MOST POTENT STIMULATOR OF NA�VE T CELL IS? A. MATURE DENDRITIC CELL B. FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELL C. MACROPHAGE D. B CELL 61.NITROBLUE TETRAZOLIUM TEST IS USED FOR? A. PHAGOCYTES B. COMPLEMENT C. T CELL D. B CELL 62.HYPERSENSITIVITY VASCULITIS IS SEEN IN? A. POST CAPILLARY VENULES B. ARTERIOLES C. VEINS D. CAPILLARIES Microbiology 63. BIOSAFTEY PRECAUTION GRADE III IS PRACTICED IN ALL EXCEPT? A. HUMAN INFLUENZA VIRUS B. ST LOUIS ENCEPHALITIS VIRUS C. COXIELLA BURNETTI D. MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS 64.MOST COMMON SPECIES OF PSEUDOMONAS CAUSING INTRAVENOUS CATHRTER RELATED INFECTIONS? A. P. cepacia B. P.areuginosa C. P.maltiphila D. P.mallei 65.MOST SENSITIVE DIAGNOSTIC TEST FOR DENGUE IS? A. IgM ELISA B. CFT C. TISSUE CULTURE D. ELECTRON MICROSCOPY 66. A GARDENER HAS MULTIPLE VESICLES ON HAND AND MULTIPLE ERUPTION S ALONG THE LYMPHATICS. MOST COMMON FUNGUS RESPONSIBLE IS? A. SPOROTHRIX SHENKII B. CLADOSPORIUM C. HISTOPLASMA D. CANDIDA 67. WHICH IS NOT A RNA VIRUS? A. EBOLA B. SIMIAN 40 C. RABIES D. VESICULAR STOMATITIS VIRUS 68.TRUE ABOUT PRION IS? A. ARE VIRUS CODED B. CAUSE MISFOLDING OF PROTEINS C. CLEAVE PROTEIN D. DEFECT IN FOLDING OF PROTEINS 69. AL ARE TRUE ABOUT BACTERIOPHAGE EXCEPT? A. HELPS IN TRANSDUCTION OF BACTERIA B. IMPARTS TOXIGENICITY TO BACTERIA C. CAN TRANSPER CHROMOSOMAL GENE 70.A GIRL FROM SHIMLA PRESENTED TO OPD WITH FEVER MALAISE AND AXILLARY AND INGUINAL LYMPHADENOPATHY.CULTURE SHOWS STALACTITE GROWTH.CAUSATIVE ORGANISM IS? A.YERSINIA PESTIS B. FRANCISELLA C. PSEUDOMONAS 71.TRUE ABOUT CARBOHYDRATE ANTIGEN ARE ALL EXCEPT? A. HAS LOW IMMUNOGENICITY B. MEMORY RESPONSE SEEN C. CAUSES POLYCLONAL B CELL STIMULATION D. DOES NOT STIMULATE T CELL 72.MECHANISM OF ACTION OF PERTUSIS TOXIN IS? A. ADP RIBOSYLATION B. C. D. ACTS THROUGH G ALPHA SUBUNIT 73.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT ISOTYPIC VARIATION? A. SUBTLE AMINO ACID CHANGES DUE TO ALLELIC DIFFERENCES B. CHANGES IN AA HEAVY AND LIGHT CHAIN IN VARIABLE REGION C. CHANGES IN HEAVY N LIGHT CHAIN IN CONSTANT REGION RESPONSIBLE FOR CLASS AND SUBTYPE D. THESE ARE AREAS IN ANTIGEN THAT BIND SPECIFICALLY TO ANTIBODY 74.TRUE ABOUT HYBRIDOMA TECHNIQUE ARE A/E? A. NARMAL ACTIVATED B CELLSMYELOMA CELLS B. MYELOMA CELLS SELECTIVE MUTATION IN SALVAGE PATHWAY, VIGOROUS PROLIFERATION IN HAT MEDIUM C. THYMIDINE KINASE AND HGPRT CATALYSE HE SALVAGE PATHWAY D. AMINOPTERIN A FOLIC ANTAGONIST, INHIBITS DE NOVO NUCLEOTIDE SYNTHESIS Forensic MEDICINE 75. WHAT IS FALLANGA? A. BEATING ON SOLES WITH BLUNT OBJECT B. C. D. 76.HYDROCUTION REFERS TO? A. DROWNING IN COLD WATER B. ELECTROCUTION IN WATER C. POST MORTEM IMMERSION D. IMMERSION IN BOILING WATER 77.NOT A CONSTITUENT OF EMBALMING FLUID? A. PHENOL B. ETHANAOL C.FORMALIN D. GLYCERINE 78. THANATOLOGY IS STUDY OF? A. DEATH 79.A MAN WORKING AS A PEST KILLER COMES TO OPD WITH PAIN ABDOMEN AND GARLIC ODOUR IN BREATH WITH TRANSVERSE LINES ON NAILS.POSONING IS DUE TO? A. LEAD B,ARSENIC C.MERCURY D. CADMIUM PSM 80.KAPLAN MEIER METHOD IS USED FOR? A . SURVIVAL B. PREVALANCE C. INCIDENCE D. FREQUENCY 81.INCIDENCE CAN BE CALCULATED BY? A. CASE CONTROL STUDY B. CROSS SECTIONAL STUDY C. PROSPECTIVE STUDY D. RETROSPECTIVE STUDY 82.all are true about cluster sampling except? a. sample size is same as that of simple random sampling b. c. d. 83. FALSE ABOUT INDIAN REFERENCE FEMALE IS? A. WEIGHS 55 KG B. AGE 20-39YRS C. 8 HOURS OF MODERATE WORK D. WALKING AND RECREATION FOR 2 HOURS 84. NOT TRUE ABOUT BREAST MILK IS? A. MAXIMUM OUTPUT IS SEEN AT 12 MONTH B. BREAST MILK PROTEIN IS A REFERENCE PROTEIN C. CALCIUM UTILIZATION FROM BREAST MILK IS MORE THAN COWS MILK D. COEFFICIENT OF ABSORPTION OF IRON IS 70% 85.LEPROMIN TEST IS URED FOR? A. DIAGNOSIS B. TREATMENT C. PROGNOSIS D. EPIDEMIOLOGICAL INVESTIGATION 86.FISH IS A POOR SOURCE OF? A. IRON B. PHOSPHORUS C. IODINE D. VIT A 87.FALSE ABOUT VACCINES IS? A. THIOMERSAL IS PRESERVATIVE IN DPT B.KANAMYCIN IS PRESERVATIVE IN MEASELS C. MgCl2 IS STABILIZER USED IN OPV D. NEOMYCIN IS PRESERVATIVE IN BCG 88.TRUE ABOUT BCG VACCINATION IS? A. TUBERCULIN TEST IS POSITIVE AFTER 6 WEEKS OF VACCINATION B. INJ SITE SHOULD BE CLEANED WITH SPIRIT C. WHO RECOMMENDS DANISH1331 STRAIN FOR VACCINE D. DILUENT UESD IS EITHER DISTILLED WATER OR NORMAL SALINE 89.SHORTEST INCUBATION PERIOD IS OF? A INFLUENZA B. HEP B C. HEP A D. RUBELLA 90.INCREASE IN FALSE POSITIVE IS SEEN IN? A. HIGH PREVALANCE B. LOW PREVALANCE C. HIGH SPECIFICITY D. HIGH SENSITIVITY 91.PLASTIC WRAPPER OF SURGICAL SYRINGE SHOULD BE DISCARDED IN? A BLUE BAG B. BLACK C. YELLOW D.RED 92. FALSE ABOUT DDT IS? A. CONTACT POISON B. RESIDUAL EFFECT LASTS FOR 18 MOTHS C. CAUSES IMMEDIATE DATH D. PERMETHRIN HAS SYNERGISTIC ACTION 93.ALL ARE LARVA CONTROL MEASURES EXCEPT? A. GAMBUSIA B. INTERMITTENT IRRIGATION C. DDT D. PARIS GREEN 94.NOT A PART OF SAFE STRATEGY? A. AZITHROMYCIN B. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION C. FACE WASH D. SANITATION 95.GOALS OF NATIONAL POPULATION POLICY ARE A/E? A. BRING DOWN TFR TO REPLACEMENT LEVEL BY 2015 B. DECREASE IMR TO 30/1000 C. DECREASE MMR TO 100/100000 D. 100% REGISTRETION OF BIRTH DEATH AND PREGNANCY 96.BEST INDEX OF CONTRACEPTIVE EFFICACY IS? A. PEARL INDEX B. CHANDELERS INDEX 97.TEST FOR EFFICACY OF PASTEURISATION OF MILK IS? A. METHYLENE BLUE TEST B. PHOSPHATASE TEST C. D. [snip].INCINERATION IS NOT DONE FOR? A. WASTE SHARP B. CYTOTOXIC DUGS C. HUMAN ANATOMICAL WASTE 99.CYCLO DEVELOPMENTAL LIFE CYCLE IS SEEN IN? A.FILARIA B. MALARIA C.YELLOW FEVER D,PLAGUE 100. TRUE ABOUT NPU? A.IT GIVES IDEA ABOUT QUALITY OF PROTEIN B. IT IS THE RATIO OF TOTAL NITROGEN RETAINED BY TOTAL N2 INTAKE MULTIPLIED BY 1OO 101.TRUE ABOUT MAXIMUM ISOLATION PERIOD OF ENTERIC FEVER IS? A. UPTO 3 DAYS AFTER STARTING THE TREATMENT B. TILL 3 CONSEQUTIVE NEGATIVE STOOL AND URINE SAMPLES ARE OBTAINED FROM THE PATIENT C. D. 102.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT RANDOMISED CONTROLLED TRIAL EXCEPT? A. SAMPLE SIZE DEPENDS UPON HYPOTHESIS B. DROPOUTS ARE EXCLUDED FROM ANALYSIS C. INTERVIEWERS BIAS CAN BE ELIMINATED BY DOUBLE BLINDING D. GROUPS ARE COMPARABLE ON BASELINE CHARACTERSTICS. ENT 103. USE OF NITROUS OXIDE IS CONTRAINDICATED IN? A. COCHLEAR IMPLANT B. MICROLARYNGEAL SURGERY C. VITREORETINAL SURGERY D. EXENTRATION OPERATION 104. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT NASOLABIAL CYST EXCEPT? A. ARISES FROM ODONTOID EPITHELIUM B. USUALLY BILATERAL C. PRESENTS SUBMUCOSALLY IN ANTERIOR NASAL FLOOR D. USUALLY PRESENTS IN ADULTHOOD 105.MICROWICK MICROCATHETER SUSTAINED RELEASE PREPARATION IS USED IN? A. MEDICATION TO ROUND WINDOW B. CONTROL OF EPISTXIS C. FREIS SYNDROME D. DROOLING OF SALIVA Ophthalmology 106.ALL ARE SEEN IN HORNERS SYNDROME EXCEPT? A. HETEROCHROMIA IRIDIS B. PTOSIS C. MIOSIS D. APPARENT EXOPHTHALMOS 107. INCLUSION CONJUNCTIVITIS IS CAUSED BY? A. CHLAMYDIA PSITTACI B. CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS 108.MAXIMUM REFRACTORY INDEX IS OF? A. CORNEA B. ANT SURFACE OF LENS C.CENTRUM OF LENS D. POST SURFACE OF LENS 109.WHAT IS SEEN IN 6TH NERVE PALSY OF LEFT SIDE? A. DIPLOPIA IN LEFT GAZE B. ACCOMODATIVE PAREISIS OF LEFT EYE C. PTOSIS OF LEFT EYE D. ADDUCTION WEAKNESS OF LEFT EYE 110.WHIICH ENZYME IS DEFECTIVE IN REFSUMS DISEASE? A. PHYTANIC ACID OXIDASE B. SUCCINATE THIOKINASE C. MALONATE DEHYDROGENASE MEDICINE 111. A 9 YR OLD GIRL HAS DIFFICULTY IN COMBING HAIRS AND CLIMBING UPSTAIRS SINCE 6 MONTHS.SHE HAS GOWERS SIGN POSITIVE AND MACULOPAPULAR RASH OVR METACARPO PHALANGEAL JOINTS.WHAT SHUOLD BE THE NEXT APPROPRIATE INVESTIGATIO TO BE DONE? A. ESR B. RA FACTOR C. CREATINE KINASE D. ELECTROMYOGRAPHY 112.ANTIBODY FOUND IN MYOSITIS IS? A. ANTI JO1 B ANTI SCL 70 C. ANTI DS DNA 113.A GIRL ON EXPOSURE TO COLD HAS PALLOR OF EXTERMITIES FOLLOWED BY PAIN AND CYANOSIS. IN LATER AGES OF LIFE SHE IS PRONE TO DEVELOP? A. SLE B. SCLERODERMA C. RA D. SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS 114. WHICH RADIOLOGICAL FEATURE WOULD HELP DIFFERENTIATE RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS WITH SLE? A. EROSION B. JUXTA ARTICULAR OSTEOPOROSIS C. SUBLUXATION OF MCP JOINT D. SWELLING OF PIP JOINT 115.ALL ARE SEEN IN REITERS SYNDROME EXCEPT? A. SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES B. ORAL ULCERS C. KERATODERMA BELANORRHAGICUM D. CIRCINATE BALANITIS 116.WHICH OF THE ORGANISM CAUSES REACTIVE ARTHRITIS? A. UREAPLASMA UREALYTICUM B. GROUP A BETA HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI C. BORRELIA BURGDORFERI 117.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT METACHROMATIC LEUCODYSTROPHY EXCEPT? A. FOLLOWS AN INDOLENT COURSE AND SLOW TO PROGRESS B. TISSUE BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC C. PRESENTS AS VISUAL LOSS AND SPEECH ABNORMALITY D. INVOLVES DEEP CORTICAL NEURONS 118. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MONONEURITIS MULTIPLEX IN INDIA IS? A. HANSENS DISEASE B. RA C. TB D. PAN 119.WISKOTT ALDRICH SYNDROME IS CHARACTERISED BY ALL EXCEPT? A. THROMBOCYTOPENIA B. AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE C. FAILURE OF AGGREGATION OF PLATELETS IN RESPONSE TO AGONISTS D. ECZEMA 120.SPONTANEOUS CSF LEAK OCCOURS IN ALL EXCEPT? A. INCREASED ICT B. PARTIAL OR COMPLETE EMPTY SELLA SYNDROME C. PSEUDOTUMOUR CEREBRI D. LOW RISK ENCEPHALOCOELE 121. TRUE ABOUT FLUORESCENT ANTIBODY DETECTION TEST IN DIAGNOSIS OF PLASMODIUM FALCIFARUM ARE A/E? A. IT�S A IMMUNOCHROMATIC TEST B. DETECTION OF HISTIDINE RICH PROTEIN 1 C. DETECTION OF LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE ANTIGEN D. DETECTION OF ALDOLASE ANTIGEN 122.MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA IS SEEN IN A/E? A. ANTIPHOSPHPLIPID ANTIBODY SYN B.TTP C. MICROSCOPIC POLYANGITIS D. METALLIC CARDIAC VALVES 123. WHICH OF THESE IS NOT A MARKER OF ACTIVE REPLICATIVE PHASE OF CHRONIC HEPATITIS B? A. HBV DNA B. HBV DNA POLYMERASE C. ANTI Hbc D. AST &ALT 124.VASODIALATION IN SPIDER NAEVI IS DUE TO? A. HEPATOTOXIN B. ESTROGEN C. TESTOSTERONE D. DHEA 125. IN A EMPHYSEMATOUS PATIENT WITH [bleep] LEISON WHICH IS THE BEST INVESTIGATION TO MEASURE LUNG VOLUMES? A. BODY PLETHYSMOGRAPHY B. HELIUM DILUTION C. TRANS DIAPHRAGMATIC PRESSURE D. DLCO 126.A 29 YR OLD UNMARRIED FEMALE PRESENTS WITH DYSPNEA, HER CHEST X RAY IS NORMAL, FVC-92% FEVI/FVC-89% DLCO-59%. ON EXERCISE HER OXYGEN SATURATION DROPS FROM 92% TO 86%.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS? A. ALVEOLAR HYPOVENTILLATION B. PRIMARY PULMONARY HYPERTENSION C. INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASE D. ANXIETY 127.A MAN ON 10 DAYS COURSE OF CEPHALOSPORINS ON 8TH DAY OF TREATMENT DEVELOPS HIGN GRADE FEVER AND RASHES ALL OVER THE BODY.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS? A. PARTIALLY TREATED MENINGITIS B. TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION C. KAWASAKI�S DS 128. WHICH IS FALSE ABOUT ACRODERMATITIS ENTEROPATHICA? A. TRIAD OF DIARRHOEA DMENTIA DERMATITIS B. LOW SERUM ZINC LEVELS C. SYMPTOMS IMPROVE WITH ZINC SUPPLEMENTATION 129.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MINOR CRITERIA FOR MULTIPLE MYELOMA? A. MULTIPLE LYTIC BONE LEISONS B. PLASMACYTOSIS OF 20% IN BONE MARROW C. PLASMACYTOMA ON TISSUE BIOPSY D. IgG- 3g/Dl IgA-1.5g/Dl 130.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FEATURES OF UREMIA WILL NOT IMPROVE WITH HEMODIALYSIS? A. PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY B. PERCARDITIS C. SEIZURES D. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS 131.NOT A MAJOR FRAMINGHAM CRITERIA FOR DIAGNOSIS OF CHF? A. HEPATOMEGALY B. CARDIOMEGALY C. S3 GALLOP D. PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL DYSPNEA 132.A 54 YR OLD SMOKER MAN COMES WITH FEVER HEMOPTYSIS WEIGHT LOSS AND OLIGOARTHRITIS. SERIAAL SKIAGRAM SHOWS FLEETING OPACITIES.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS? A. ALLERGIC BRONCHOPULMONARY ASPERGILLOSIS B. CA LUNG C. TB D. WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS 133.MISFOLDED PROTEINS ARE SEEN IN A/E? A. PRION DS B. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS C. AMYLOIDOSIS D. CREUTZFELDT JACOB DS 134.ZINC DEFICIENCY CAUSES A/E? A. PULMONARY FIBROSIS SURGERY 135.IN A MALE AFTER LAPROSCOPIC CHOLECYSTECTOMY CARCINOMA GALL BLADDER STAGE Ia WAS DETECTED ON HISTOPATH. WHAT IS THE NEXT APPROPRIAT MANAGEMENT? A. CONSERVATIVE AND FOLLOW UP B. RADICAL PORTAL LYMPHADENECTOMY C. RADIOTHERAPY D. 136. BOUNDARY OF TRIANGLE OF DOM ARE FORMED BY ALL EXCEPT? A. PERITONEAL FOLD REFLECTION B. COOPERS LIGAMENT C. TESTICULAR VESSELS D. VAS DEFRENS 137.MOST COMMON SITE OF CURLINGS ULCER IN A BURNS PATIENT IS? A. DUODENUM B. ILEUM C. COLON D. OESOPHAGUS 138.MOST COMMON SITE OF PERIPHERAL ANEURYSM? A. FEMORAL A. B. POPLITEAL A C. BRACHIAL A D. RADIAL A 139. THE CHILDREN HOSPITAL OF EASTERN ONTARIO PAIN SCALE(CHEOPS) FOR RATING POST OPERATIVE PAIN IN CHILDREN INCLUDES A/E? A. CRY B. TOUCH C. TORSO D. OXYGEN SATURATION 140. A MAN COMES TO EMERGENCY WITH STEB INJURY TO LEFT FLANK.HE HAS STABLE VITALS WHAT WOULD BE THE NEXT STEP IN MANAGEMENT? A. CECT B. CELIOTOMY/SCOPY C. DIAGNOSTIC PERITONEAL LAVAGE D. LAPAROTOMY 141. RECURRENT GIST IS DIAGNOSED BY? A. PET SCAN B. MIBG C. MRI D. USG 142. NICOLADONI�S SIGN IS ALSO KNOWN AS? A. BRANHAMS SIGN B. MURRAY SIGN C. D. FREI SIGN 143.NOT A COMPLICATION OF TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION? A. CONGESTIVE CARDIAC FAILURE B. METABOLIC BONE DISEASE C. ESSENTIAL FATTY ACID DEFICIENCY D.HYPOPHOSPHATEMIA 144. SURGERY NOT DONE IN MORBID OBESITY? A. ILEAL TRANSPOSITION B. PANCREATICO BILIARY DIVERSION C. SLEEVE GASTRECTOMY D. GASTRIC BYPASS 145.A PERSON WITH MULTIPLE INJURIES DEVELOPS FEVER TACHYCARDIA TACHYPNEA AND A PERIUMBILICAL RASH. DIAGNOSIS IS? A. FAT EMBOLISM B. PULMONARY EMBOLISM C. D. 146. GLOMUS TUMOUR IS SEEN IN? A.PITUITARY B. ADRENAL C. LIVER D. FINGER 147. HUNTERIAN LIGATURE IS USED IN? A. VARICOSE VEIN B. POPLITEAL ANEURYSM C. AV MALFORMATION D. LIMB ISCHEMIA 148.TREATMENT OF MEDULLARY CARCINOMA THYROID? A. SURGERY ALONE B. RADIOIODINE ABLATION C. SURGERY AND RADIOTHERAPY D. CHEMO AND RADIATION 149.IN A PATIENT OF CARCINOMA BREAST SUPRACLAVICULAR LYMPH NODES ARE POSITIVE FOR METASTASIS.STAGE IS? A.II B. IIIb C. IIIc D. IV 150.BEST TEST TO DIAGNOSE GERD AND QUANTIFY ACID OUTPUT IS? A. ESOPHAGOGRAM B. ENDOSCOPY C. 24 hour PH MONITORING D. MANOMETRY 151.VIRCHOWS TRIAD INCLUDES A/E? A. INJURY TO VEIN B. VENOUS THROMBOSIS C. VENOUS STASIS D. HYPERCOAGULABILITY OF BLOOD 152.A 25 YEAR MALE PRESENTED WITH PAIN ABDOMEN, ON USG MIXED ECHOGENICITY WAS FOUND AT LEFT RENAL HILUM AND A MULTIFOCAL NECROTIC MASS IS DETECTED.PROBABLE DIAGNOSIS IS? A. METASTATIC GERM CELL TUMOUR B. TRANSITIONAL CELL CARCINOMA C. LYMPHOMA D. METASTATIC MALIGNANT MELANOMA 153.MOST COMMON SITE OF CHOLANGIO CARINOMA? A. DISTAL BILIARY TREE B. HILUM C. INTRAHEPATIC BILIARY DUCT D. MULTIFOCAL 154.TRUE ABOUT GLEASONS STAGING? A. SCORE FROM 1-10 B. HIGH SCORE IS ASSOCIATED WITH BAD PROGNOSIS C. HELPS IN GRADING OF TUMOUR D. HELPS DECEIDE TREATMENT MODALITY 155.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ACUTE MESENTRIC ISCHEMIA? A. THROMBOSIS B. EMBOLISM C.NON OCCLUSIVE MESENTRIC ISCHEMIA D. 156.A WOMAN NOTICED MASS ON BREAST WITH BLOODY DISCHARGE. HISTOPATH REVEALED DUCT ECTASIA.TREATMENT IS? A. MICRODOCHECTOMY B. LOBECTOMY C. RADICAL DUCT EXCISION D. SIMPLE MASTECTOMY PEDIATRICS 157. A 7 YR OLD GIRL WITH NON PRODUCTIVE COUGH, MILD STRIDOR FOR 3 MONTHS DURATION. PATIENT IS IMPROVING BUT SUDDENLY DEVELOPED WHEEZE PRODUCTIVE COUGH MILD FEVER AND HYPERLUCENCY ON CXR AND PFT SHOWS OBSTRUCTIVE CURVE.DIAGNOSIS IS? A. BRONCHIOLITIS OBLITERANS B. HEMOSIDEROSIS C. PULMONARY ALVEOLAR MICROLITHIASIS D. FOLLICULAR BRONCHITIS 158. 3.5 KG TERM MALE BABY BORN OF UNCOMPLICATED PREGNANCY DEVELOPED RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AT BIRTH NOT RESPONDED TO SURFACTANT, ECHO IS NORMAL, CXR SHOWS GROUND GLASS APPEARANCE. CULTURE NEGATIVE.APGAR SCORE 4 AND 5 AT 1 AND 5 MIN.HOSTORY OF I MONTH FEMALE SIBLING DIED BEFORE.DIAGNOSIS? A. TAPVC B. MECONIUM ASPIRATION C. NEONATAL PLMONARY ALVEOLAR PROTEINOSIS D. DIFFUSE HERPES SIMPLEX INFECTION 159. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT CONGENITAL RUBELLA EXCEPT? A. IgG PERSISTS FOR MORE THAN 6 MONTHS B. IgM ANTIBODY IS PRESENT AT BIRTH C. MOST COMMON ANOMALIES ARE HEARING AND HEART DEFECTS D. INCREASED CONGENITAL MALFORMATION IF INFECTION AFTER 16 WEEKS 160. A 10 YR OLD CHILD IS ALWAYS RESTLESS INATTENTIVE TO STUDY AND ALWAYS WANTS TO PLAY OUTSIDE.PARENTS ARE EXTREMELY DISTRESSED.WHAT WOULD YOU ADVISE? A. IT�S A NORMALBEHAVIOUR B. BEHAVIOUR THERAPY C. IT�S A SERIOUS ILLNESS REQUIRES MEDICAL TREATMENT D. NEEDS CHANGE IN ENVIRONMENT 161.A 2YR OLD CHILD BROUGHT TO EMERGENCY AT 3 AM .CHILD HAS BARKY COUGH AND STRIDOR ONLY WHILE CRYING. NARMAL HYDRATION RR-36/MIN T-39.6 C .WHAT WILL BE YOUR NEXT STEP? A. RACEMIC EPINEPHRINE NEBULISATION B. HIGH DOSE DEXAMETHASONE INJ C. NASAL WAS FOR INFLUENZA/RSV D. ANTIBIOTICS AND BLOOD CULTURE 162.BAD PROGNOSTIC FACTOR FOR ALL IS? A. AGE 2-8 YEARS B. TLC<50000 C. HYPERDIPLOIDY D. t(9:22), t(8:14),t(4:11) OBSTETRICS AND Gynaecology 163.IN Mc ROBERTS MANOEUVRE HIP IS FLEXED AGAINST MOTHERS ABDOMEN.THIS LEADS TO INJURY OF WHICH NERVE? A. LUMBOSACRAL TRUNK B. OBTURATOR N C. FEMORAL N. D. LATERAL CUTANEOUS N OF THIGH 164. ALL ARE DONE IN MANAGEMENT OF SHOULDER DYSTOCIA EXCEPT? A. FUNDAL PRESSURE B. Mc ROBERTS MANOEUVRE C. SUPRAPUBIC PRESSURE D. WOOD S MANOEUVRE 165.A 25 YEAR OLD MARRIED NULLIPARA UNDERGOES LAPROSCOPIC CYSTECTOMY FOR OVARIAN CYST WHICH ON HISTOPATH REVEALS SEROUS OVARIAN ADENOCARCINOMA.WHAT SHOULD BE THE NEXT MANAGEMENT? A. SERIAL CA-125 AND FOLLOW UP B. HYSTERECTOMY AND SALPINGOOOPHORECTOMY C. HYSTERECTOMY + RADIOTHERAPY D. RADIOTHERAPY 166. SAFEST VASOPRESSOR IN PREGNANCY IS? A. EPHEDRINE B. PHENYLEPHRINE C. METHOXAMINE D. MEPHENTINE 167.FALLOPIAN TUBE DYSMOTILITY IS SEEN IN? A. NOONAN SYN B. TURNER SYN C. KARTAGENER SYN D. MARFAN SYN 168.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING INVESTIGATIONS ARE USED IN FIGO STAGING OF CARCINOMA CERVIX EXCEPT? A. CECT B. IVP C. CYSTOSCOPY C. PROCTOSIGMOIDOSCOPY 169.CLUE CELLS ARE FOUND IN? A. CANDIDIAL VAGINOSIS B. BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS C. TRICHOMONIASIS D. 170. BEST INDICATOR OF OVARIAN RESERVE IS? A. FSH B. ESTRADIOL C. LH D. FSH/ LH RATIO 171. A PREGNANT LADY ACQUIRES CHICKEN POX 3 DAYS PRIOR TO DELIVERY.SHE DELIVERS BY NORMAL VAGINAL ROUTE.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE? A. BOTH MOTHER AND BABY ARE SAFE B. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO MOTHER BEFORE DELIVERY C. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO BABY D. BABY WILL DEVELOP CONGENITAL VARICELLA SYNDROME 172. EARLIEST DETECTABLE CONGENITAL MALFORMATION BY USG IS? A. ANENCEPHALY B. SPINA BIFIDA C. MENINGOCOELE D. CYSTIC HYGROMA 173.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE TO PREVENT THE TRANSMISSION OF HIV FROM MOTHER TO BABY EXCEPT? A. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION TO MOTHER B. NO BREAST FEEDING C. VAGINAL DELIVERY D. ZIDOVUDINE TO MOTHER 174.A 45YR OLD LADY WITH DUB HAS 8mm THICKNESS OF ENDOMETRIUM.NEXT STEP IN MANAGEMENT? A. HISTOPATHOLOGY� B. HYSTERECTOMY C. PROGESTERONE D.OCP 175. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT PCOD EXCEPT? A. PERSISTENTLY ELEVATED LH B. INCREASED LH/FSH RATIO C. INCREASED DHEAS D. INCREASED PROLACTIN 176.A FEMALE AT 37 WKS OF GESTATION HAS MILD LABOUR PAIN FOR 10 HOURS AND CERVIX IS PERSISTENTLY 1cm DIALATED NON EFFECED.WHAT WILL BE NEXT APPROPRIATE MANAGEMENT? A. SEDATION AND WAIT B. AUGMENTATION WITH SYNTOCINON C. CESAREAN SECTION D. AMNIOTOMY 177.A WOMAN COMES WITH OBSTRUCTED LABOUR AND GROSSY DEHYDRATED INVESTIGATIONS REVEAL FETAL DEMISE.WHAT WILL BE THE MANAGEMENT? A. CRANIOTOMY B. DECAPITATION C. CESAREAN SECTION D. FORCEPS EXTRACTION 178.INVESTIGATION OF CHOICE IN CHOLESTASIS OF PREGNANCY? A. BILIRUBIN B. BILE ACIDS C. ALK PHOSPHATASE D. ALT&AST 179.A FEMALE HAS HISTORY OF 6 WEEKS AMENORRHOEA,USG SHOWS EMPTY SAC,SERUM BETA HCG -1000IU.WHAT WOULD BE NEXT MANAGEMENT? A. MEDICAL MANAGEMENT B. REPEAT HCG AFTER 48 HOURS C. REPEAT HCG AFTER 1 WEEK orthopaedics 180. VELPEAU SLING AND SWATH BANDAGE IS USED IN? A. ACROMIO C LAVICULAR DISLOCATION B. SHOULDER DISLOCATION C. FRACTURE SCAPULA D. FRACTURE CLAVICLE 181. IN POST RADICAL NECK DISSECTION SYNDROME ALL ARE SEEN EXCEPT? A. SHOULDER DROOPING B. RESTRICTED RANGE OF MOVEMENT OF SHOULDER JOINT C. SHOULDER PAIN D. NORMAL ELECTROMYOGRAPHIC FINDING 182. RISSERS LOCALISER CAST IS USED IN THE CONSERVATIVE MANAGEMENT OF? A. DORSOLUMBAR SCOLIOSIS B. IDIOPATHIC SCOLIOSIS C. KYPHOSIS D. SPONDYLOLISTHESIS GRADE III 183. WATSON JONES OPERATION IS DONE FOR? A. VALGUS DEFORMITY B. MUSCLE PARALYSIS C. NEGLECTED CLUBFOOT D. HIP 184. TRENDELENBERG TEST IS POSITIVE DUE TO INJURY TO? A. SUP GLUTEAL N B. INF GLUTEAL N C. OBTURATOR N D. TIBIAL N 185. JOINT NOT INVOLVED IN RA ACCORDING TO 1987 MODIFIED ARA CRITERIA IS? A. METATARSOPHALANGEAL B. TARSOMETETARSAL C. ANKLE D. ELBOW 186.IN POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT SYNDROME WHICH PASSIVE MOVEMENT CAUSES PAIN? A. DORSIFLEXION OF FOOT B. FOOOT INVERSION C. TOE DORSIFLEXION D. FOOT ABDUCTION 187.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INSERTIONAL TENDINITIS OF TENDOACHILLES IS? A. IMPROPER SHOE WEAR B. RUNNERS AND JUMPERS C. OVERUSE D. INTRALEISONAL STEROID INJ Dermatology 188.CHILD PRESENTS WITH LINEAR VERRUCOUS PLAQUES ON THE TRUNK WITH VACUOLISATION OF KERATINOCYTES IN S. SPINOSUM AND S. GRANULOSUM.DIAGNOSIS IS? A. INCONTINENTA PIGMENTI B. DELAYED HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION C. NAEVUS D. LINEAR DARRIERS DISEASE 189.IN CENGENITAL DYSTROPHIC EPIDERMOLYSIS [bleep] DEFCT IS SEEN IN? A. LAMININ 4 B. COLLAGEN TYPE 7 C. D. RADIOLOGY 190.A PT COMES WITH PROPTOSIS AND ABDUCENT N PALSY. A DARK HOMOGENOUS MASS ON T2W MRI IS SEEN WHICH SHOWS INTENSE ENHANCEMENT WITH CONTRAST.DIAGNOSIS IS? A. CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA B. MENINGIOMA C. ASTROCYTOMA D. GLIOMA 191.CENTRAL DOT SIGN IS SEEN IN? A. CAROLIS DISEASE B. PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS C. POLYCYSTIC LIVER DISEASE D.LIVER HAMARTOMA. 192. ON USG DIFFUSE THICKENING OF GALL BLADDER WITH HYPERECHOIC SHADOW AT NECK AND COMET TAILING IS SEEN IN? A. XANTHOGRANULOMATOUS CHOLECYSTITIS B. ADENOMYOMATOSIS C. ADENOMYOMATOUS POLYPS D. CHOLESTEROL CRYSTALS 193. CT INDEX. TRUE IS? A. BY REDUCING kvp BY 50% RADIATION DOSE IS REDUCED TO HALF B. C. D. Psychiatry 194. TYPE TWO SCHIZOPHRENIA(TJ CROW) IS CHARACTERISED BY ALL EXCEPT? A. NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS B. POOR RESPONSE TO TT C. DISORGANISED BEHAVIOUR D. CT SCAN ABNORMAL 195.ACCORDING TO DISABILITIES ACT 1995. SEVENTH DISABILITY AS IT IS USUALLY REFERRED TO IS? A. NEUROLOGICAL ABNORMALITY B. MENTAL ILLNESS C. SUBSTANCE ABUSE D. DISABILITY DUE TO ROAD TRAFFIC ACCIDENT 196. COGNITIVE MODEL OF DEPRESSION IS GIVEN BY? A. GODFREY B. BECK C. D. 197.MOST RECENT MARKER OF ECT IS? A. 5-HIAA B. CSF DOPAMINE C. BRAIN DERIVED GROWTH FACTOR D. THYROXINE Anaesthesia 198. FASTEST ROUTE OF ABSORPTION OF LOCAL ANAESTHETIC IS? A. INTERCOSTAL B. EPIDURAL C. BRACHIAL D. CAUDAL 199. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CAUSE NEUROLEPT MALIGNANT SYNDROME EXCEPT? A. AMANTADINE B. HALOPERIDOL C. METOCLOPRAMIDE D. DOMPERIDONE

superbdoc Total Posts: 273	Posted: Tue Nov 25, 2008 05:26 am Results have come https://tinyurl.com/55tx9b OR https://www.aiims.edu/aiims/examsection/aiims-pg-jan2009.pdf best of luck...

dcmymx Total Posts: 42	Posted: Tue Jan 06, 2009 10:59 am list of candidates securing more than 50% is out

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