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| dubspg Total Posts: 44 | Posted: Sat Nov 10, 2007 04:49 pm i have separated th Q subjectwise. i am getting only 193. fill in the missing Q and options of the rest ANATOMY 1) Tongue muscles develop from 1) Mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch 2) occipital somites 3) cervical somites 2) Meiosis in spermatogenesis occurs in which step 1) Primary spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia 2) Spermatid to round spermatid 3) Lt renal vein crosses aorta at the level of 1) Posteriorly at the level of SMA 2) Anteriorly above the level of SMA 3) Anteriorly below the level of IMA 4) Anteriorly below the level of SMA 4) Fourth lobe of liver by Couinard’s classification 1) Left lobe 2) Right lobe 3) Quadrate lobe 4) Caudate lobe 5) Regarding development of gonads what is true 1) Y chromosome is associated with development of the ovary 2) Genital ridge develops at 5th week 3) Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals 4) External genitalia complete at 10 wks 6) Transitional epithelium is seen in A/E: 1) Collecting duct 2) Minor calyces 3) Ureter 4) Bladder 7) Perforators are not present at 1) Ankle 2) Calf 3) Mid thigh 4) Below inguinal ligament  Pericardial pain is conducted through
1) Superficial cardiac plexus 2) Deep cardiac plexus 3) Phrenic nerve 4) Intercostobrachial nerve 9) Initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is by 1) Fibroblast growth factor 8 2) BMP4 3) EGRF 4) Nodagen gene 10) In hyaline cartilage collagen present is: 1) Type 1 2) Type 2 3) Type 3 4) Type 4 11) Gb epithelium is 1) Simple columnar 2) Simple columnar with brush border 3) Squamous 4) Cuboidal with stercocilia 12) Block in second part of axillary artery. Which will serve as collaterals? 1) Subscapular and posterior circumflex humeral 2) Circumflex scapular and anterior circumflex scapular 13) What is the uppermost structure in the left hilum? 1) Pulmonary artery 2) Pulmonary vein 3) Bronchial artery 4) Bronchus 14) Which muscle is not punctured in thoracocentesis in mid-axillary line 1) Internal intercostals 2) External intercostals 3) Transverse thoracis 4) Innermost intercostals 15) All are components of basement membrane except: 1) Laminin 2) Entactin 3) Rhodopsin 16) Ulnar nerve palsy causes A/E: 1) Claw hand 2) Hypothenar wasting 3) Anaesthesia of medial palm 4) Adductor pollicis is intact 17) Watershed area between SMA and IMA 1) Ascending colon 2) Descending colon 3) Splenic flexure 4) Hepatic flexure PHYSIOLOGY 1 Surfactant action
1) Breaks structure of water 2) Lubricates CO2 diffusion 3) Make capillary surface hydrophilic 4) Binds oxygen 19) Nephelometry depends on the following law: 1) Lambert Beer law 2) Scattering of light from particles 3) Refraction of light 4) Decreased intensity of light 20) What is seen in normal person on lying down 1) Increase in venous return 21) Exercise causes which of the following? 1) Increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min 2) Body temperature increases 22) Peristalsis of ureter depends on 1) Only sympathetic 2) Only parasympathetic 3) Both 4) Intrinsic pacemaker in smooth muscle of ureter 23) In systemic capillary blood flow all are seen except: 1) Increased protein content 2) Decreased pH 3) Hb dissociation curve shifts to left 4) Increased hematocrit 24) Cardiac O2 consumption is directly proportional to 1) Mean Arterial Pressure 2) External work done 3) Heart rate 25) Rapid flow in the neurons is by all except 1) Dyenin 2) Kinesin 3) Neurofilaments 4) Microfilaments 26) Bicarbonate absorption 1) PCT 2) DCT 27) Nitric oxide all are true except: 1) cAMP 2) Vasomotor tone 2 Which of the following is correctly matched?
1) A cells – insulin 2) B cells – somatostatin 3) D cells – glucagons 4) G cells – gastrin 29) Receptor present on Sertoli cell for: 1) Inhibin 2) FSH 3) LH BIOCHEMISTRY 30) In PCR following cation is used 1) Ca 2) Mg 3) Li 4) Na 31) Proteins with same structure and different sequence evolved through process that was 1) Convergent 2) Divergent 3) Opportunistic 4) Incidental 32) Vitamin K is important in 1) Carboxylation 2) Hydroxylation 33) Peroxidase used in estimation of 1) Hemoglobin 2) Glucose 3) Ammonia PATHOLOGY 34) PAS is used for staining 1) Fungal cell wall 2) Basement membrane 3) Glycogen 4) Lipids 35) Method of Hb estimation are A/E 1) Drabkin’s method 2) Sahl’s method 3) Spectrophotometry 4) Wintrobe’s method 36) FNAC needle gauge size: 1) 26-28 2) 22-26 3) 18-22 4) 16-18 37) Reye’s syndrome, histological findings are: 1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria 2) Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum 3) Depletion of glycogen 4) Perinuclear staining 3 Classification of bone tumours
1) Manchester 2) TNM 3) Enneking 39) Acridine dye is used to stain 1) DNA-RNA 2) Protein 3) Lipid 4) Carbohydrate 40) Stains for lipid are A/E: 1) Oil red O 2) Congo red 3) Sudan III 4) Sudan black 41) Collapsing glomerulopathy following is seen: 1) Proliferation of parietal cells 2) Tuft necrosis 42) In MVP valve degeneration is 1) Myxomatous degeneration 2) Hyaline degeneration 43) Senile cardiac amylodosis A/E: 1) Transthyretin 2) Beta2 microglobulin 3) ANP 4) Pyerdin 44) Shock lung histopathological finding is 1) Diffuse alveolar necrosis 2) Pulmonary edema 3) Interstitial pneumonia 45) Irreversible injury 1) Amorphous densities in mitochondria 46) Langerhans cell marker is 1) CD 57 2) CD 1a 3) CD 3 4) CD 68 47) Lysosomal disorders are caused by 1) Membrane defect in lysosomes 2) Inability of lysosome to combine with phagosome 4 Caspases are mediators of
1) Apoptosis PHARMACOLOGY 49) Drug causing hyperglycaemia 1) Glucocorticoids 2) Beta blockers 50) Furosemide, true is 1) Acts on PCT 2) Given by parental route only 3) Used in pulmonary edema 4) Causes mild diuresis 51) Thiazide causes A/E: 1) Hyperglycaemia 2) Increased calcium excretion 3) Increased blood uric acid levels 4) Used in CCF 52) Biphosphonates are used in A/E: 1) Hypercalcemia 2) Cancer 3) Osteoporosis 4) Hypervitaminosis D 53) Tryptans act through 1) 5HT1a 2) 5HT1b 3) 5HT1c 4) 5HT3 54) Therapeutic monitoring is required for A/E: 1) Phenytoin 2) Cyclosporine 3) Tacrolimus 4) Metformin 55) True abt protease inhibitors are A/E: 1) MDR-1 gene 2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes 3) Drug interaction 4) Saquinavir has the most potent action on CYP3A4 56) Following drugs act on GABA-A except 1) Thiopentone 2) Midazolam 3) Zopiclone 4) Promethazine 57) Phenytoin all are true except: 1) Induces enzymes 2) Zero order kinetics at low dose 3) Half life increases with increasing dose 4) Highly protein bound 5 Which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3
1) Granisetron 2) Ondansetron 3) Dolasetron 4) Palavosetran 59) Marker of acute hepatitis B: 1) Anti HBsAg 2) IgG Anti HBc 3) HBeAg 4) HBV DNA 60) Group of drugs not used for sedation but with AE of sedation is 1) Antihistaminics, antidepressants 2) Digitals, antiarrythmics 61) Fibrates all are true except 62) Benzodiazepines true is 1) Safer in overdose 2) Induce metabolism of other drugs 3) All have active metabolites MICROBIOLOGY 63) Prions are 1) Carbohydrates 2) Lipids 3) Nucleic acids 4) Proteins 64) For vibrio cholerae medium used is: 1) Thayer Martin medium 2) TCBS 3) Skiwett medium 65) Blood spills on floor are cleaned by 1) Sodium hypochlorite 2) Iodine 66) HACEK group consists of A/E: 1) Haemophilus aphrophilus 2) Acinetobacter comitans 3) Cardiobacterium hominis 4) Eikenella corrodens 67) Schick’s test true is: 1) Immunity to diphtheria 2) Immunity and hypersensitivity to diphtheria 3) Susceptibility to diphtheria 4) Susceptibility and hypersensitivity to diphtheria 6 Sexually active man complains of burning micturation. On examination no penile ulcers present. Urine examination shows WBCs 50, leucocyte esterase test positive, rest normal. Urine negative for Neisseria gonorrhoea. Organism involved is:
1) Hemophilus ducreyi 2) Human papilloma virus 3) Chlamydia trachomatis 4) Treponema pallidum 69) HIV window period is 1) From infection to detection of antibodies 2) From hiv to onset of symptoms 3) From Hiv to AIDS 4) From HIV to low CD4 count(200) 70) Corynebacterium diphtheria all are true except: 1) It has metchromatic granules 2) It does not invade deep tissues 3) Elek’s test 4) Toxin production is governed by chromosomal gene 71) Lancefield classification is based on 1) M protein 2) Carbohydrate cell wall antigen FORENSIC MEDICINE 72) How many bullets are fired in tandem bullets 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) None of the above 73) Telephona is 1) Beating on both ears 2) Beating on soles 3) Forced position 4) Pulling of hair 74) Primary impact injury is MC in: 1) Head 2) Chest 3) Abdomen 4) Leg 75) In a case of asphyxia last to be dissected is 1) Neck 2) Thorax 3) Abdomen 4) Brain 76) Grievious hurt is A/E: 1) Loss of one kidney 2) Loss of one testis 3) Loss of hearing in one ear 4) Facial abrasion 77) Informed consent A/E PSM 7 All are measures of dispersion except
1) Mode 2) SD 3) Variance 4) Range 79) In national immunization programme, which is not included? 1) Hepatitis B 2) BCG 3) TT 4) Measles 80) Fluorosis true is A/E: 1) Most common cause of dental caries in children 2) Genu valgum 3) Nalgonda technique used for defluoridation 4) Deposited in bone and muscle 81) True abt dietary allowance are A/E: 1) RDA 2) Adequate intake 3) Nutritional value of individual food constituents 4) Upper limit of RDA 82) Which of the following persons is present in a health centre? 1) Multipurpose worker 2) Doctor 3) Lab technician 4) Health educator 83) SAFE strategy is used in 1) Trachoma 84) Scrub typhus is transmitted by: 1) Trombiculid mite 2) Reduvid bug 3) Enteric pathogens 4) Cyclops 85) Kala Azar is transmitted by 1) Sand fly 2) Tsetse fly 86) Comparison of results with intended objective 1) Evaluation 2) Monitoring 3) Input-output analysis 4) Network 87) Not a principle of learning: 1) Modeling 2) Response prevention 3) Catharsis 4) Exposure 8 Epidemic dropsy
1) Sanguinarine 2) BOAA 89) Method of finding disease in apparently healthy individuals 1) Screening 90) Maternal mortality rate is: 1) No of maternal deaths / 1000 births 2) No of maternal deaths / 1000 live births 3) No of maternal deaths / 100000 births 91) The first case that the investigator comes across in an epidemic is 1) Primary case 2) Index case 3) Secondary case 92) Polio which is true: 1) Spastic paralysis 2) Increased muscle exercise and injectable vaccines can cause paralysis 93) Polio is A/E: 1) No need to survey AFP in child < 5 yrs 94) PUFA are present in A/E: 1) Corn oil 2) Groundnut oil 3) Mustard oil 4) Fish oil 95) True abt viral infections A/E: 1) Mumps causes septic meningitis 2) Measles causes SSPE after prolonged period 96) School eye checkup vision is checked by 1) School teachers ENT 97) A 30 yr old man presents with 6 months h/o facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again he had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge in middle meatus. Next best step is: 1) Non contrast CT nose 2) Xray PNS 3) Facial MRI 4) Inferior meatus 9 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating arytenoids, involvement of false cord. Treatment is:
1) Horizontal hemilaryngectomy 2) Vertical hemilaryngectomy 3) Radiation and chemotherapy 4) Total laryngectomy 99) Hearing loss in left ear with pars flaccida perforation. Management is: 1) Tympanoplasty 2) Mastoid exploration 3) Antibiotic ear drops for 30 days OPHTHALMOLOGY 100) Transperancy of cornea is maintained by A/E 1) Mitotic figures in the cornea 2) Widely separated collagen bands 3) Hydration of corneal epithelium 4) Unmyelinated nerve fibres 101) Dangerous area of the eye 1) Ciliary body 2) Optic nerve 3) Sclera 4) Retina 102) Vitreous humor sent in 1) Phenol 2) Acetone 3) Xylene 4) Alcohol 103) Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. In which of the following the ionic exchange is blocked? 1) Inhibitors of anaerobic glycolysis 2) Stimulators of anaerobic glycolysis 3) Inhibitors of electron transport chain 4) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors MEDICINE 104) Hampton’s hump is seen in 1) Pulmonary embolism 2) Bronchogenic carcinoma 105) Best investigation for pulmonary thromboembolism 1) d-dimer 2) Catheter angiography 3) Multidetector CT 106) Linkage studies use the principle of 1) DNA polymorphism 2) Pedigree showing who is affected and who is not 107) Which is not an essential feature of TOF 1) Pulmonic valvular stenosis 2) Infundibular stenosis 3) Aortic override 4) Hypertrophy of rt ventricle 108) Pulmonary hypertension is associated with A/E 1) Hyperventilation 2) Obesity 3) Fenfluramine 4) High altitude 109) Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except 1) PNH 2) Megaloblastic anemia 3) Myelodysplastic anemia 4) Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia 110) Not seen in VHL 1) Phaeochromocytoma 2) Pancreatic tumour 3) Endolymphatic sac tumour 4) Hemangioendothelioma 111) Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E 1) Cushing’s syndrome 2) Renal artery stenosis 3) End stage renal disease 4) Primary hyperaldosteronism 112) Absence of corpus callosum leads to 1) Hemiparesis 2) Hemianaesthesia 3) Astereognosis 4) No neurological deficit 113) With regards to CSF all are true except: 1) Ph is less than blood 2) No neutrophis are present 3) Formed by arachnoid villi 4) Persistant leakage causes headache 114) Best investigation to r/o cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test between 25 and 35 1) f508 mutation 2) Fecal fat estimation 3) CT chest 4) Potential difference at nasal epithelium 115) Osteomalacia true are A/E: 1) Increased Sr calcium 2) Increased alkaline phosphatase 3) Looser’s zones 4) Proximal myopathy 116) Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in 1) FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.6 2) Low exercise tolerance at maximal capacity 3) TLC 80% of predicted 4) PEFR 60% of predicted 117) Fractional excretion of Na <1 is seen in: 1) ATN 2) Renal artery stenosis 3) Pre-renal azotemia 4) Intrinsic renal failure 118) Good clinical practice is not required in: 1) Pre clinical testing 2) Phase 1 trials 3) Phase 2 trials 4) Phase 4 trials 119) White matter lesion with hyperdense lesion on thalamus 1) Krabbe’s disease 2) Metachromatic leucodystrophy 3) Caravan’s disease 4) Alexander’s disease 120) Ketoacidosis all are true except 1) Hyperventilation 2) Pain in abdomen 3) Bradycardia 4) Dehydration 121) Metabolic alkalosis is seen in 1) Primary mineralocorticoid excess 2) Mineralocorticoid deficiency 122) A70 yr old hypertensive patient with h/o syncopal attack.(ECG tracing) 123) Diagnosis is: 1) Temporal lobe epilepsy 2) Complete heart block 3) Vasovagal syncope 4) Pulmonary thromboembolism 124) All are used in thromboprophylaxis except 1) Aspirin 2) Heparin 3) Warfarin 4) Antithrombin III 125) Pt having chest discomfort for 1 hr. ECG shows ST segment elevation in inferior leads. Treatment is: 1) PPI 2) Aspirin 3) Beta blockers 4) Thrombolytic therapy 126) Cryoprecipitate contains A/E: 1) Factor VIII 2) Factor IX 3) vWF 4) Fibrinogen 127) Post-ductal coarctation of aorta. Collaterals are: 1) Intercostals and inferior epigastric 128) An 18 yr old boy presents with rash on the shins and swelling of knee. There is h/o hematuria. Urinalysis shows RBC 3+, protein 1+. Findings on renal biopsy will be: 1) Fusion of podocytes 2) ATN 3) Mesangial deposition of IgA 4) Thickening of basement membrane 129) In rheumatic carditis with MR following will be seen 1) Increased RV 2) Increased PEFR 3) Decreased TLC 4) Increased ventilatory capacity 130) Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in A/E: 1) Active hepatitis B 2) Alcoholic cirrhosis 3) Hemochromatosis 4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis 131) Most common brain tumour in NF1 1) Optic glioma 2) Pilocytic Astrocytoma 3) Glioblastoma multiforme 4) Brainstem glioma 132) Cushing’s syndrome all are true except: 1) Central obesity 2) Easy bruisability 3) Glucose intolerance 4) Episodic hypertension 133) Pancreatic tumour, pituitary tumour, parathyroid hyperplasia, thyroid nodule, adrenal hyperplasia, skin angiofibroma is found in: 1) MEN 1 2) MEN 2A 3) MEN 2B 4) MEN 2C 134) Councilman bodies is seen in: 1) ALD 2) Autoimmune hepatitis 3) Wilson’s disease 4) Viral hepatitis 135) When the posterior interventricular artery arises from the circumflex artery, the circulation is 1) Right dominant 2) Left dominant 136) SIADH causes A/E: 1) Hyponatremia 2) Volume depletion 3) Hypouricemia 137) JVP ‘c’ wave is seen in 1) Atrial contraction 2) Bulging of tricuspid valve into rt atrium 3) Ventricular filling 138) Hypercalcemia A/E 1) Multiple myeloma 139) DM intensive care needed A/E: 1) Pregnancy 2) Post renal transplant 3) DM with HT 4) Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy SURGERY 140) Goniometer is used for 1) Urethrovesical angle 2) Width of genital hiatus 3) Number of gonococci 141) In inflammation of retrocaecal appendix which of the following movements causes pain? 1) Flexion 2) Extension 3) Medial rotation 4) Lateral rotation 142) 2 days after a laproscopic appendicectomy a lady slipped and banged her nose. Now there is swelling of the nose, hyponasal voice and difficulty in breathing. A swelling is seen along the nasal septum. There is no fever. Further treatment is: 1) Surgical drainage 2) Continued observation in hospital 3) I.V. antibiotics for 10 days 4) Discharge on oral antibiotics and follow up after 2 weeks 143) Drug stopped on the day of surgery 1) Metformin 2) Atenolol 3) Amlodepin 4) Statins 144) Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial cancers 1) Extrophy of bladder 2) Medullary sponge kidney 3) Duplication of ureters 145) Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma is approached in the following sequence: 1) Abdomen-thorax-neck 2) Rt chest-abdomen 3) Neck-chest abdomen 146) # penis with intact Buck’s fascia. Blood extravasation: 1) Butterfly shaped 2) Scrotum and penis only 3) Scrotum, penis and anterior abdominal wall 4) Penile shaft only 147) Duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Hematocrit 10 after transfusion. Pulse 110. BP 100/70. Bleeding not controlled by endoscopic procedure. Next line of management 1) PPI 2) Distal gastrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum 3) Duodenotomy, controlling bleeder, pyloroplasty 148) Ogilvie’s syndrome true is A/E: 1) Mechanical obstruction of the bowel 2) Partial or total involvement of bowel 3) Ileus after morphine ingestion 4) Post op ileus 149) MC site of sub-ependymal giant cell astrocytoma 1) Lateral ventricle 2) Foramen of Monro 3) 4th ventricle 150) Most common site of spinal tumour 1) Extradural 2) Intradural extramedullary 3) Intramedullary 4) All occur in same frequency 151) Shoulder pain during laparoscopyis due to: 1) Subphrenic abscess 2) CO2 narcosis 3) Positioning of patient 4) Compression of lungs 152) 3 yr old girl posted for tonsillectomy found to have midline cystic swelling below thyroid which is asymptomatic. On USG thyroid gland is normal and the cystic swelling is thick walled. What should be done next? 1) Surgery 2) X-ray chest 3) Antibiotic 4) Percutaneous aspiration 153) In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged except: 1) Isthmus of the thyroid gland 2) Inferior thyroid artery 3) Inferior thyroid vein 4) Thyroidea ima artery 154) Man with right flank pain and hematuria. Urinalysis shows numerous RBCs. Diagnosis is 1) Ureteral calculus OBG 155) Increase in maternal serum AFP is seen in 1) Down’s syndrome 2) Molar pregnancy 3) Overestimation of gestational age 4) Congenital nephritic syndrome 156) Clomiphene citrate is associated with A/E 1) Polycystic ovaries 2) Foetal anomaly 3) Multiple pregnancy 4) Ovarian cancer 157) Diagnosis of Asherman’s syndrome is done by all except 1) Endometrial culture 2) Hysteroscopy 3) Hysterosalpingography 4) Saline infusion sonography 158) Uterine relaxant with least side effects 1) Ritodrine 2) Nifedipine 3) Magnesium sulphate 4) Progesterone 159) Following squamous intraepithelial lesion is associated with maximum risk of invasive cervical cancer 1) HPV 16 with dysplasia 2) Low grade intraepithelial neoplasia 3) High grade intraepithelial neoplasia 4) HIV associated 160) Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is 1) Uterine rupture 2) Cervical lacerations 3) Vaginal lacerations 4) Uterine inertia 161) WHO criteria for semen analysis, all are true except 1) Sperm count more than 1 million 2) Normal morphology more than 25% 3) Forward propelling motility more than 15% 4) Volume of 1 ml 162) G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. Which of the following should be done? 1) McDonald stitch 2) Fothergill’s repair 3) Dinoprostone 4) Misoprostol 163) Patient with rheumatic heart disease. Which drug is not used in the control of PPH? 1) Oxytocin 2) Methyl ergometrine 3) Misoprostol 4) Carboprost 164) Fixing of cervical smear done by 1) Ethanol 2) Acetone 3) Xylene 4) Formalin 165) 18 yr old presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge from nipples, weight loss, anoerexia. Diagnosis is: 1) Occult cancer 2) Anoerexia nervosa 3) Hypothyroidism 4) HIV 166) Down’s syndrome is associated with A/E: 1) Increased PAPP-A 2) Increased free beta-hCG 3) Absent nasal bone 4) Abnormal waveform in ductus venosus 167) Primi with decreased fetal movements. Oligohydramnios in this case is caused by 1) Tracheo-oesophageal fistula 2) Bilateral renal agenesis 3) Anencephaly 4) Spina bifida 168) Mirena is 1) Progesterone IUCD 169) Radiation therapy post-operatively in endometrial carcinoma is given in A/E: 1) Deep myometrial invasion 2) Positive pelvic nodes 3) Distension of uterine cavity 170) OC pill is CI in patient receiving 1) Rifampicin 2) Pyrazinamide 3) Ethambutol 4) Streptomycin 171) Worst prognosis in mother 1) Eisenmenger’s syndrome PAEDIATRICS 172) Which vaccine is not given to a child suffering from convulsions? 1) Measles 2) DPT 3) BCG 4) OPV 173) 18 month old coming for vaccination with previous history of immunization only once at 2 months. Which of the following would be applicable? 1) Restart the immunization schedule 174) 3 yr old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8 weeks revealed increasedc consolidation. Next step in investigation is 1) Bronchoscopy 2) Nasopharyngeal culture 3) CT 175) On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radical cysts. Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition 1) Imperforate anus 2) Hepatic cysts with fibrosis 3) Absent ureters 176) Baby not passed meconium for 48 hrs, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen. The next investigation is: 1) Lower GI contrast studies 2) Manometry 3) Esophagogram 4) Fecal fat estimation 177) MC type of seizure in neonates 1) Tonic 2) Clonic 3) Subtle 4) Myoclonic 178) A healthy neonate delivered at term develops respiratory distress and ultimately dies. similar history in prior term sibling. Cause is 1) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis 2) TAPVC 179) A newborn develops develops respiratory distess at birth. On auscultation there are decreased breath sounds in left lung. Baby is ventilated with bag and mask and endotracheal tube is put but baby worsens. Further management is 1) Immediate surgery 2) CXR to check position of tube 3) Nasogastric intubation ORTHOPAEDICS 180) Kanavel’s sign is present in 1) Tenosynovitis 2) Carpal tunnel syndrome 3) Trigger finger 4) Dupuytren’s contracture 181) Fracture of 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful contraction of the following muscles 1) Peroneus longus 2) Peroneus brevis 3) Peroneus tertius 4) Extensor digitorum longus SKIN 182) True abt vitiligo are A/E: 1) Genetic predisposition 2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis 3) PUVA-B is used for treatment 4) Topical steroids give good results 183) Lady with h/o typhoid 4 months back having diffuse hair loss for the past one month. Diagnosis is: 1) Androgenetic alopecia 2) Telogen effluvium 3) Anagen effluvium 4) Alopecia areata 184) Cicatricial cause of alopecia are all except: 1) Alopecia areata 2) Lichen planus 3) Pseudo ANAESTHESIA 185) Cerebral oxygen demand is increased by 1) Propofol 2) Ketamine 3) Fluranes 186) Thiopentone true is A/E: 1) Induction agent of choice in shock 2) Cerebroprotective 3) Contraindicated in porphyria 4) Mixed with sodium bicarbonate 187) Mivacurium when given in high doses all are true except 1) Bronchospasm 2) Hypertension 3) Flushing 4) Rapid onset of action PSYCHIATRY 188) All are characteristics of schizophrenia except 1) Third person auditory hallucinations 2) Inappropriate emotions 3) Long stretches of mood change 4) Formal thought disorder 189) Type A personality false is: 1) Hostile 2) Time presuure 3) Competitiveness 4) Mood fluctuations 190) Misinterpretation of real objects 1) Illusion 2) Delusion 3) Hallucination RADIOLOGY 191) “Egg on side” appearance of the heart 1) Uncorrected TGA 2) Truncus arteriosus 3) TOF 192) Persistant fetal lobulation of adult kidney because of 1) Normal variant 2) Obstructive uropathy 3) Infections and scars 193) Floating-lily sign is seen in: 1) Hydatid cyst 2) Hamartoma |
| rvimalchander Total Posts: 3 | Posted: Sun Nov 11, 2007 01:03 am AIIMS NOVEMBER 2007 QUESTIONS =================================================================================== ANATOMY =================================================================================== 1. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is: a. Pulmonary artery b. Pulmonary vein c. Bronchus d. Bronchial artery 2. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta: a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery 3. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through: a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric c. Subcostal and Umbilical d. … 4. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries: a. Ascending colon b. Hepatic flexure c. Splenic flexure d. Descending colon 5. Gall bladder epithelium is: a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia c. Simple columnar d. Simple columnar with brush border 6. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line: a. Innermost intercostals b. Transverses thoracis c. External intercostals d. Internal intercostals 7. Urothelium does not line: a. Collecting ducts b. Minor calyx c. Ureter d. Urinary bladder 8. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is: a. Caudate lobe b. Quadrate lobe c. Left lobe d. Right lobe 9. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called: a. Right dominance b. Left dominance c. Balanced dominance d. .. 10. Perforators are not present at the: a. Ankle b. Distal calf c. Mid thigh d. Below the inguinal ligament 11. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by: a. Deep cardiac plexus b. Superficial cardiac plexus c. Phrenic nerve d. Subcostal nerve =================================================================================== EMBRYOLOGY =================================================================================== 12. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation: a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid 13. Regarding genital development, true is: a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals d. Genital development is complete by 10th week 14. Tongue develops from: a. Occipital somites b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch c. Cervical somites d. .. 15. The ureter develops from: a. Metanephros b. Mesonephros c. Mesonephric duct d. Paramesonephric duct 16. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to: a. Brachyury gene b. BMPR-4 c. Nodal gene d. FGF-8 =================================================================================== PHYSIOLOGY =================================================================================== 17. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as: a. Dedifferentiation b. Redifferentiation c. Transdifferentiation d. Subdifferentiation 18. Which of the following is correctly matched: a. B cells – Somatostain b. D cells – Insulin c. G cells – Gastrin d. ….. 19. Basement membrane consists of all except: a. Laminin b. Nidogenin c. Entactin d. Rhodopsin 20. Fast axonal transport is by all except: a. Dynenin b. Kinesin c. Microfilaments d. Neurofilaments 21. Exercise causes: a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure c. Body temperature rise d. … 22. The mechanism of action of surfactant is: a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic d. .. 23. All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except: a. Increase in hematocrit b. Hb curve shifts to the left c. Increased protein content d. Decrease in pH 24. Learning does not include: a. Modelling b. Catharsis c. Exposure d. Sensitization 25. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is: a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4 26. Ureteric peristalsis is due to: a. Sympathetic innervation b. Parasympathetic innervation c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis 27. With CSF all are true except: a. Persistent leakage causes headache b. Neutrophils are normally not present c. pH is less than that of blood d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi 28. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from: a. PCT b. DCT c. Collecting duct d. Thick ascending loop of Henle 29. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by: a. Drabkin’s method b. Sahli’s method c. Spectrometry d. Wintrobe’s method 30. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for: a. FSH b. LH c. Inhibin d. .. 31. About myocardial O2 demand, true is: a. Inverse relation with heart rate b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension c. Constant relation to external work done d. Negligible in quiescent heart 32. Which of the following is seen in agenesis of corpus callosum: a. Astereognosis b. Hemiparesis c. Hemisensoriloss d. No neurological deficit 33. Regarding nitric oxide, false is: a. Seen in the lung of smokers b. Increases cAMP levels c. Used to treat hypertension d. .. 34. Goniometry is measurement of: a. Number of gonococci b. Length of the genital hiatus c. Urethrovesical angle d. .. 35. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs: a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex =================================================================================== BIOCHEMISTRY =================================================================================== 36. Nephelometry is based on: a. Lambert-Beer law b. Scattering of light by particulate solution c. Defraction of light d. Decreased intensity of light 37. Prions consist of: a. DNA and RNA b. DNA, RNA and proteins c. RNA and proteins d. Only proteins 38. PCR requires: a. Li++ b. Ca++ c. Na++ d. Mg++ 39. Acridine orange is used as a stain for: a. DNA and RNA b. Proteins c. Carbohydrate d. Lipids 40. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be: a. Convergent b. Divergent c. Opportunistic d. .. 41. Not used to stain fats: a. Oil red O b. Congo red c. Sudan III d. Sudan black 42. Vitamin K is required for: a. Carboxylation b. Hydroxylation c. .. d. .. 43. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by: a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors d. Interference with electron chain transport 44. Peroxidase is used to detect: a. Glucose b. Ammonia c. Hemoglobin d. Creatinine 45. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except: a. Mustard oil b. Groundnut oil c. Corn oil d. Fish oil =================================================================================== PATHOLOGY =================================================================================== 46. Caspases are involved in: a. Apoptosis b. .. c. .. d. .. 47. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by: a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria b. Depletion of glycogen c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum d. Perinuclear staining 48. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is: a. HBV-DNA polymerase b. IgG anti-HBc c. Core antigen (HbcAg) d. Anti-HbsAg 49. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is: a. Hyalinization of the valve b. Fibrinoid necrosis c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve d. .. 50. PAS does not stain: a. Fungal cell wall b. Basement membrane of bacteria c. Glycogen d. Lipids 51. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is: a. Foramen of Monro b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle d. Fourth ventricle 52. Most common tumor is NF-1 is: a. Astrocytoma b. Optic tract glioma c. Glioblastoma multiforme d. .. 53. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to deposition of: a. ß2 – microglobulin b. Transthyretin c. AANF d. Pyrin 54. Shock lung is characterized histologically by: a. Diffuse alveolar oedema b. Hemosiderosis c. Interstitial pneumonia d. Pulmonary oedema 55. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is: a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane d. .. 56. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is: a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria b. .. c. .. d. .. 57. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except: a. Chronic hepatitis B with… b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis d. Hemochromatosis 58. Councilman bodies are seen in: a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Wilson’s disease c. Acute viral hepatitis d. .. 59. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to: a. Congenital renal defect b. Obstructive uropathy c. Intrauterine infections and scar d. Is a normal variety 60. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen: a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium c. Tuft necrosis d. Mesangiolysis 61. The best agent used for fixation of Pap smear is: a. Ethyl alcohol b. Acetone c. Formalin d. Xylol 62. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders: a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism with a clnical phenotype c. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members D. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity 63. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is: a. CD1a b. CD57 c. CD3 d. CD68 64. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except: a. Factor VIII b. Factor IX c. Von Willebrand factor d. Fibrinogen 65. FNAC needle gauge size is: a. 26 – 28 b. 22 – 26 c. 18 – 22 d. 16 – 18 =================================================================================== MICROBIOLOGY =================================================================================== 66. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question): a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. H.ducreyi c. Treponema pallidum d. .. 67. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using: a. M protein b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall c. Group C carbohydrate antigen d. .. 68. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is: a. Thayer-martin b. TCBS medium c. Scirrow’s medium d. .. 69. True about polioviruses is: a. Most cases are symptomatic b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis c. .. d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age 70. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by: a. Sodium hypochlorite b. Iodine c. Absolute alcohol d. Quarternary ammonium compounds 71. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except: a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults c. .. d. .. 72. Scrub typhus is transmitted by: a. Reduvid bug b. Trombiculid mite c. Enteric pathogens d. Cyclops 73. Kala-azar, vector is: a. Flea b. Tsetse fly c. Sand fly d. .. 74. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except: a. HbsAg b. IgM anti-HbcAg c. HbeAg d. Anti-HbsAg 75. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is: a. Immune to diphtheria b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria c. Susceptible to diphtheria d. Carrier of diphtheria 76. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: a. Deep invasion is not seen b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity c. Metachromatic granules are seen d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change 77. HACEK group includes all except: a. Hemophilus aprophillus b. Acinetobacter baumanni c. Eikenella corrodens d. Cardiobacterium hominis =================================================================================== PHARMACOLOGY =================================================================================== 78. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except: a. Beta blockers b. Glucocorticoids c. .. d. .. 79. Regarding Phenytoin,false is: a. Induces microsomal enzymes b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life d. Highly protein bound 80. Most potent anti-emetic is: a. Ondansetron b. Granisetron c. Dolasetron d. Pavalosetron 81. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except: a. Tacrolimus b. Metformin c. Cyclosporine d. Phenytoin 82. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through: a. 5HT-1A b. 5HT-1B c. 5HT-1F d. 5HT-3 83. True about protease inhibitors are all except: a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4 84. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of: a. Preclinical studies b. Phase I studies c. Phase II studies d. Phase IV studies 85. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is: a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics b. More sedative than other hypnotics c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics d. .. 86. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect: a. Ritodrine b. MgSO4 c. Nifedipine d. Progesterone 87. Bisphosphonates are not used in: a. Hypercalcemia b. Osteoporosis c. Cancer d. Vitamin D intoxication 88. Regarding furosemide, true is: a. Given by parenteral route only b. Used in pulmonary oedema c. Acts at the PCT d. .. 89. Thiazides cause all except: a. Hyperglycemia b. Increased calcium excretion c. Increased uric acid excretion d. Useful in congestive heart failure 90. True about fibrates is all except: a. (MOA)….PPARa….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL… b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and… 91. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving: a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Streptomycin d. Pyrazinamide 92. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery: a. Atenolol b. Amlodepine c. Statins d. Metformin 93. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect: a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants c. Macrolides,… d. .. =================================================================================== ANESTHESIA =================================================================================== 94. All are true about Thiopentone except: a. NaHCO3 is a preservative b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias c. Agent of choice in shock d. Cerebroprotective 95. All regarding Mivacurium are true except: a. Larger doses speed the onset of action b. Bronchospasm c. Flushing d. Hypertension 96. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by: a. Propofol b. Ketamine c. Atracurium d. Fentanyl 97. All but one acts via GABA-A except: a. Thiopentone b. Midazolam c. Zolpidem d. Promethazine =================================================================================== FORENSIC MEDICINE =================================================================================== 98. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except: a. Loss of testis b. Loss of eye c. Loss of kidney d. Abrasion of the face 99. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is: a. Head b. Neck c. Thorax d. Abdomen 100. Telefona is: a. Beating on the soles of the feet b. Pulling of hair c. Beating on both the eardrums d. Beating on the head 101. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the: a. Head b. Chest c. Legs d. Abdomen 102. In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 103. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in: a. Hydrochloric acid b. Phenol c. Formalin d. Fluoride 104. Not a part of informed consent is: a. .. b. .. c. .. d. Concealing of information =================================================================================== OPHTHALMOLOGY =================================================================================== 105. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except: a. Hydration b. Wide separated collagen bands c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea d. Unmyelinated nerve fiber 106. Dangerous area of the eyeball is: a. Ciliary body b. Sclera c. Optic nerve d. Retina 107. SAFE strategy is recommended for: a. Trachoma b. Glaucoma c. Diabetic retinopathy d. Cataract =================================================================================== ENT =================================================================================== 108. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next? a. Percutaneous aspiration b. I.V. antibiotics c. Surgical removal d. Observation 109. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is: a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy d. Total laryngectomy 110. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be: a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month c. Tympanoplasty d. Tympano-mastoid exploration 111. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be: a. Facial MRI b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses d. Inferior meatus puncture 112. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except: a. Isthmus of the thyroid b. Inferior thyroid artery c. Thyroidea ima d. Inferior thyroid vein =================================================================================== SPM =================================================================================== 113. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre: a. Multipurpose worker b. Laboratory technician c. Health educator d. Medical officer 114. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is: a. Tetanus toxoid b. Hepatitis B c. BCG d. Measles 115. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease: a. Immigration of healthy persons b. Increased cure rate of the disease c. Longer duration of the disease d. .. 116. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except: a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found b. .. c. .. d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age 117. True about dietary allowance are all except: a. Adequate intake b. RDA c. Dietary intake according to food composition d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA 118. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is: a. Index case b. Primary case c. Secondary case d. Tertiary case 119. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by: a. Evaluation b. Monitoring c. Input - output analysis d. Network analysis 120. Epidemic Dropsy is due to: a. BOAA b. Sanguinarine c. Aflatoxin d. .. 121. Primary Health Care is: a. Health for all b. .. c. .. d. .. 122. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students? a. School teachers b. Medical officers of health centers c. Ophthalmologists d. Health assistants 123. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is: a. Screening b. Surveillance c. Case finding d. Notification 124. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by: a. Maternal deaths/live birth b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births d. Maternal deaths/100000 population 125. Not a measure of central tendency: a. Mode b. Range c. Variable d. Standard deviation =================================================================================== MEDICINE =================================================================================== 126. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except: a. Heparin b. Aspirin c. Warfarin d. Antithrombin-III 127. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: a. Loop diuretics b. Lithium c. Vitamin D intoxication d. .. 128. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is: a. Intradural extramedullary b. Extradural c. Intramedullary d. All have equal distribution 129. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus: a. Pregnancy.. b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy c. DM with acute MI d. Post kidney transplant 130. VHL syndrome includes all except: a. Endolymphatic sac tumours b. Pheochromocytoma c. Hemangioendotheliomas d. Islet cell tumours 131. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except: a. B/L renal artery stenosis b. End stage renal disease c. Cushing’s disease d. Primary hyperaldosteronism 132. Cushing’s disease includes all except: a. Central obesity b. Episodic hypertension c. Easy bruisability d. Glucose intolerance 133. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in: a. Mineralocortoid excess b. Increased excretion of base c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids 134. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension is caused by all except: a. Hyperventilation b. Morbid obesity c. Fenfluramine d. High altitude 135. Not a feature of DKA is: a. Tachypnoea b. Bradycardia c. Abdominal pain d. Dehydration 136. Fractional excretion of Na+ < 1% is seen in: a. Pre-renal azotemia b. ATN c. Intrinsic renal failure d. Renal artery stenosis 137. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except: a. PNH b. Megaloblastic anaemia c. Myelodysplastic anaemia d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia 138. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to: a. Atrial contraction b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed d. .. 139. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has: a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60 b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected 140. In HIV window period indicates: a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV c. . d. . 141. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have: a. Increased peak expiratory flow b. Increased total lung capacity c. Increased residual volume d. Decreased functional residual capacity 142. Not seen in SIADH is: a. Hyponatremia b. Hypouricemia c. Volume depletion d. .. 143. A 40 year old man, heavy smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevation in inferior leads. what therapy he should recieve immediately: a. Aspirin b. Thrombolytic therapy c. Pantoprazole d. Beta-blockers 144. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have: a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels b. Raised calcitonin levels c. Increased phosphate levels 145. Regarding flourosis all are true except: a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique d. Genu valgum 146. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is: a. HBV-DNA polymerase b. IgG anti-HBc c. Core antigen (HbcAg) d. Anti-HbsAg 147. ECG was shown A 70 year old man with no previous significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is: a. Vasovagal shock b. Pulmonary embolism c. Complete heart block d. Temporal lobe epilepsy 148. A man presented with tachypnea, to rule out pulmonary embolism the best investigation is: a. D-dimer levels b. CT angiography c. Colour Doppler USG d. Intracatheter angiography =================================================================================== PEDIATRICS =================================================================================== 149. All are essential components of TOF except: a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis b. Right ventricular hypertrophy c. Infundibular stenosis d. Aorta overriding 150. In Down’s syndrome, false is: a. Increased PAPP-A b. Increased ß-HCG c. Absent nasal bone d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow 151. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is: a. Post viral syndrome b. Bronchiolitis obliterans c. Follicular bronchitis d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis 152. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is: a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection b. Meconium aspiration syndrome c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis d. Disseminated HSV infection 153. Most common type of seizures in neonates are: a. Clonic b. Tonic c. Subtle d. Myoclonic 154. In a survey, many children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial carcinomas are most likely to be associated with which anomaly: a. Medullary sponge kidney b. Bladder extrophy c. Unilateral renal agenesis d. Double ureter 155. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be: a. Bronchoscopy b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx c. CT scan of the chest d. Allergen sensitivity test 156. A child presents with history of respiratory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis: a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements b. Nasal electrode potential difference c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation 157. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be: a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis b. Manometry c. Lower bowel contrast enema d. Oesophagoscopy 158. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be: a. Holoprosencephaly b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis c. Ureteral agenesis d. Medullary sponge kidney 159. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen: a. Fusion of podocytes b. Acute tubular necrosis c. Deposition of IgA d. Thickened basement membrane 160. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions? a. Measles b. BCG c. DPT d. OPV 161. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step? a. Remove the Endotracheal tube b. Put a nasogastric tube c. Surgery d. Tube thoracostomy 162. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now? a. Re-start the immunization according to age b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT =================================================================================== SURGERY =================================================================================== 163. After fracture of the penis ( njury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at: a. The penis and scrotum b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall d. Shaft of the penis only. 164. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip: a. Flexion b. Extension c. Medial rotation d. Lateral rotation 165. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between: a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery 166. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except: a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon b. It involves entire / part of the large colon c. It occurs after previous surgery d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use 167. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next? a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days b. Observation in hospital c. Surgical drainage d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks 168. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be: a. Proton pump inhibitors b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer 169. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order: a. Abdomen – Neck b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck d. Chest – Neck 170. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to: a. Subphrenic abscess b. CO2 narcosis c. Positioning of the patient d. Compression of the lung 171. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis: a. MEN 1 b. MEN 2A c. MEN 2B d. MEN 2C 172. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is: a. Glomerulonephritis b. Ca-Urinary bladder c. Ureteral calculus d. .. =================================================================================== ORTHOPEDICS =================================================================================== 173. Staging of bone tumours is done by: a. Enneking b. Manchester c. Edmonton d. TNM 174. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except: a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles c. Claw hand d. Adductor pollicis paralysis 175. In osteomalacia, all are true except: a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase b. Increased serum calcium c. Looser’s zones d. Proximal myopathy 176. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal: a. Peroneus brevis b. Peroneus longus c. Peroneus tertius d. Extensor digitorum brevis 177. Kanavel’s sign is seen in: a. Tenosynovitis b. Dupuyteren’s contracture c. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Trigger finger =================================================================================== OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY =================================================================================== 178. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except: a. HSG b. Hysteroscopy c. Endometrial culture d. Saline infusion USG 179. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix: a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16 d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV 180. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except: a. Polycystic ovarian disease b. Multiple pregnancies c. Ovarian cancer d. Teratogenecity 181. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is: a. Anorexia nervosa b. Occult carcinoma c. Hypothyroidism d. HIV 182. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except: a. Deep myometrial invasion b. Pelvic lymph node involvement c. Enlarged uterine cavity d. Poor tumour differentiation 183. Mirena is: a. Used in abortion b. Anti-progesterone c. Progesterone IUCD d. Hormonal implant 184. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in: a. Down’s syndrome b. Molar pregnancy c. Over estimated gestational age d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome 185. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest? a. Coarcatation of aorta b. Eisenmenger’s complex c. Aortic stenosis d. Mitral stenosis 186. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except: a. Tracheo oesophageal fistula b. .. c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. .. 187. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse lie is associated with the following complication: a. Uterine rupture b. Vaginal laceration c. Uterine atony d. Cervical laceration 188. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated: a. Misoprostol b. Methyl ergometrine c. Oxytocin d. .. 189. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be: a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch d. Apply McDonald’s stitch 190. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except: a. Sperm count > 20 million b. Volume > 1 ml c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria) d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % =================================================================================== SKIN =================================================================================== 191. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is: a. Androgenetic alopecia b. Telogen effluvium c. Anagen effluvium d. Alopecia areata 192. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except: a. Lichen planus b. Discoid lupus erythematosus c. Alopecia areata d. Lupus vulgaris 193. True about vitiligo are all except: a. Topical steroids give good results b. Genetic predisposition c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis =================================================================================== RADIOLOGY =================================================================================== 194. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in: a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Uncorrected TGA c. Tricuspid atresia d. Ebstein’s anomaly 195. Hampton’s hump is seen in: a. Pulmonary embolism b. Tuberculosis c. Bronchogenic Ca d. .. 196. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI scan of the brain is seen in: a. Alexander’s disease b. Krabbe’s ds. c. Canavan’s ds d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy 197. Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in: a. Hydatid ds. b. Aspergillosis c. Tuberculous cavity d. .. =================================================================================== PSYCHIATRY =================================================================================== 198. Regarding type A personality, false is: a. Hostility b. Time pressure c. Competitiveness d. Mood fluctuations 199. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on: a. Unconscious conflict b. Maladjusted reinforcement c. Organic neurological problem d. .. 200. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except: a. Third person auditory hallucinations b. Inappropriate emotions c. Long stretches of mood changes d. Formal thought disorder 201. Altered perception of real objects is: a. Illusion b. Delusion c. Hallucination d. Delirium =================================================================================== |
| rits Total Posts: 3 | Posted: Tue Nov 13, 2007 03:10 am fibroblast growth factor 8
ref net |
| rits Total Posts: 3 | Posted: Tue Nov 13, 2007 03:10 am fibroblast growth factor 8
ref net |
| nandhagopal Total Posts: 4 | Posted: Tue Nov 13, 2007 04:57 am muscle inserting in to base of the 5th mteatarsal bone a)peroneus brevis b)peroneus tertius c) d) Ans: B |
| rits Total Posts: 3 | Posted: Tue Nov 13, 2007 06:21 am wintrobe's method is not used for Hb estimation |
| Admin Total Posts: 890 | Posted: Sun Nov 18, 2007 11:30 pm Dear Users, AIIMS 2007 November MD MS EE Mcqs are under updation for discussion at - https://www.netmedicos.com/?aiimsmdmsee2007nov/mcqs/ Answers and Comments can be discussed at the link above. With regards, Netmedicos |